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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the third trimester of her second pregnancy.
      The Examination is unremarkable, with a BP of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80. Her BMI is 24 and she has an abdomen consistent with a 31-week pregnancy. The GP decides to check some thyroid function tests.
      Which of the following is considered to be normal?

      Your Answer: Elevated free T4

      Correct Answer: Elevated total T4

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, profound changes in thyroid physiology occur to provide sufficient thyroid hormone (TH) to both the mother and foetus. This is particularly important during early pregnancy because the fetal thyroid starts to produce considerable amounts of TH only from approximately 20 weeks of gestation, until which time the foetus heavily depends on the maternal supply of TH. This supply of TH to the foetus, as well as increased concentrations of TH binding proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin) and degradation of TH by placental type 3 iodothyronine deiodinase, necessitate an increased production of maternal TH. This requires an intact thyroid gland and adequate availability of dietary iodine and is in part mediated by the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a weak agonist of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. As a consequence, serum-free thyroxine (FT4) concentrations increase and TSH concentrations decrease from approximately the eighth week throughout the first half of pregnancy, resulting in different reference intervals for TSH and FT4 compared to the non-pregnant state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination findings were...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented with an episode of syncope. His examination findings were normal. He gave a history of sudden cardiac death of a close relative. His ECG showed incomplete right bundle-branch block and ST-segment elevations in the anterior precordial leads. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Explanation:

      Brugada syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by sudden cardiac death. The positive family history and characteristic ECG findings are in favour of Brugada syndrome. Usually the physical findings are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg.
      She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 350 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (355 mOsm/kg).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia

      Explanation:

      In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is...

    Correct

    • A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?

      Your Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old cancer patient that recently had an anterior resection of the rectum...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old cancer patient that recently had an anterior resection of the rectum is concerned about postoperative pain control. What is the most appropriate management choice in his case?

      Your Answer: IM morphine

      Explanation:

      Post-operative pain is usually severe and strong analgesia is needed with IM morphine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which type of myocardial infarction has the worst prognosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of myocardial infarction has the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior wall MI with ejection fraction on ECHO of 25%

      Correct Answer: Anterior wall MI complicated with continuing left ventricular failure and an exercise tolerance of 3 METS on a predischarge exercise test

      Explanation:

      Exercise tolerance of 3 METS on a predischarge exercise test is the most important indicator of a poor post-MI prognosis. Other similar features that predispose the individual to a poor prognosis are resuscitation from a secondary ventricular tachyarrhythmia after the fist 24h and poor left ventricular function on echo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10

      Explanation:

      The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the...

    Correct

    • In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the following?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      More than 70% of cases with inflammatory bowel disease are associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis. The most common association is that of ulcerative colitis, in which case it progresses independently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer has a lower incidence in HIV positive patients. Seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer are all increased incidence. Memorize this breast cancer fact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old female presented with purple stretch marks on her abdomen, easy bruising...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presented with purple stretch marks on her abdomen, easy bruising and weight gain. A low dose Dexamethasone suppression test did not show any but a high dose Dexamethasone suppression test showed suppression of cortisol levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Pituitary Adenoma

      Explanation:

      Clinical features are due to excess cortisol. High-dose dexamethasone suppression test shows suppression in patients with Cushing’s disease. Cushing syndrome includes all causes of glucocorticoid excess, whereas Cushing’s disease is reserved only for pituitary-dependent Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old male came to the OPD with complaints of nocturia, difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male came to the OPD with complaints of nocturia, difficulty in initiating urination and continuous dribbling of urine afterwards. A transrectal US guided biopsy was performed and the diagnosis of BPH was made. His TURP was planned. Which of the following electrolyte imbalance is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Hyponatremia

      Explanation:

      In a TURP procedure, fluid is used to irrigate the bladder and to remove blood clots. IV fluids are also given to the patient post-operatively. These factors will lead to dilutional hyponatremia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old...

    Correct

    • A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old patient. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      The dendritic ulceration seen on fluorescein staining of the eye is pathopneumonic for keratitis caused by HSV (herpes simplex virus). Presentation is that of blepharoconjunctivitis. Treatment is required, the treatment is typically topical acyclovir. Topical steroids can make the infection worse. The other answer choices would not have this dendritic pattern seen on fluorescein staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 34 year male is brought to the emergency by the paramedics who...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year male is brought to the emergency by the paramedics who found him unconscious after being hit by a car. However, he regained consciousness and began talking. While waiting for the doctor's review, he suddenly becomes comatose and the condition deteriorates. What will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subdural haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Extradural haemorrhage occurs as a result of head trauma and subsequent acute haemorrhage, primarily from the middle meningeal artery between the skull and the dura mater. Typical symptoms are due to compression of the brain and appear after a lucid interval that follows an initial loss of consciousness. Increased intracranial pressure leads to a decline in mental status and anisocoria, in which the ipsilateral pupil is dilated. Diagnosis is confirmed by CT (biconvex, hyperdense, sharply demarcated mass). Emergency treatment is necessary and involves neurosurgical opening of the skull and hematoma evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24-year-old patient known with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is expecting her first child. She...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old patient known with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is expecting her first child. She is concerned whether her child will be affected or not. What is the pattern of inheritance of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is inherited in an autosomal codominant pattern, meaning that one defective allele tends to result in milder disease than two defective alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal opening and a fever. She has history of T1DM for the last 20 years. What treatment should she get?

      Your Answer: I&D + antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Surgical incision and drainage is the most common treatment for anal abscesses. About 50% of patients with an anal abscess will develop a complication called a fistula. Diabetes is a risk factor for an anal abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury as a result of a motorbike accident. He has had no benefit from paracetamol or ibuprofen. In addition, he has had an unsuccessful trial of amitriptyline. Following recent NICE guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate medication to consider?

      Your Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Neuropathic pain may be defined as pain which arises following damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is often difficult to treat and responds poorly to standard analgesia.
      The most recent update to the NICE guidelines for management of neuropathic pain occurred in 2013: first-line treatment* includes amitriptyline. If the first-line drug treatment does not work then move on to one of the other 3 drugs: duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. Tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may be used for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia). Pain management clinics may be useful in patients with resistant problems.

      *please note that for some specific conditions the guidance may vary. For example carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.
      He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Analgesic misuse headache

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently.
      On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.

      The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock).
      It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.

      Treatment:
      Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone.
      After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications.
      Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.
      Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      126.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which wakes him up in the night. He also has a itchy, dry and scaly skin rash. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Explanation:

      The skin lesion is most probably eczema. It is common among atopic people. Asthma is a common association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Correct

    • Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Muscular weakness

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s Syndrome, is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      The common clinical scenarios in which the possibility of primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered include the following:
      – Patients with spontaneous or unprovoked hypokalaemia, especially if the patient is also hypertensive
      – Patients who develop severe and/or persistent hypokalaemia in the setting of low to moderate doses of potassium-wasting diuretics
      – Patients with treatment-refractory/-resistant hypertension (HTN)
      Patients with severe hypokalaemia report fatigue, muscle weakness, cramping, headaches, and palpitations. They can also have polydipsia and polyuria from hypokalaemia-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Long-standing HTN may lead to cardiac, retinal, renal, and neurologic problems, with all the associated symptoms and signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level of 35 g/L. Bone marrow aspirate reveals 32% monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate. He has no evidence of anaemia, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, or lytic lesions.

      What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Observe and monitor

      Explanation:

      The patient is asymptomatic but matches the diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma (MM). Therefore, the underlying diagnosis of this condition is smouldering multiple myeloma (SMM). SMM is an early precursor to MM. Its treatment is typically to watch and wait.

      MM is a neoplasm of the bone marrow plasma cells. Peak incidence is in patients aged 60-70 years.

      Clinical features of MM include:
      1. Ostealgia, osteoporosis, pathological fractures (typically vertebral), and osteolytic lesions
      2. Lethargy
      3. Infections
      4. Hypercalcaemia
      5. Renal failure
      6. Other features: amyloidosis e.g. macroglossia, carpal tunnel syndrome; neuropathy; hyperviscosity

      Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10-30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting of the hypothenar eminence and weakness of finger abduction and thumb adduction. The lesion is most probably located at:

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Patients with compressive neuropathy of the ulnar nerve typically describe numbness and tingling of the ulnar-sided digits of the hand, classically in the small finger and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. Among the general population, symptoms usually begin intermittently and are often worse at night, particularly if the elbow is flexed while sleeping. As the disease progresses, paraesthesia may occur more frequently and during the daytime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches and sweating. On examination, a nodule is felt in the region of the thyroid gland. She mentions that her mother had kidney stones and died following a tumour in her neck. A surgeon recommends complete thyroidectomy as her treatment of choice.

      What is the most important investigation to be done before the surgery?

      Your Answer: 24-hour urinary catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma (MTC).
      Sporadic, or isolated MTC accounts for 75% of cases and inherited MTC constitutes the rest.
      Inherited MTC occurs in association with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2A and 2B syndromes, but non-MEN familial MTC also occurs.
      A 24-hour urinalysis for catecholamine metabolites (e.g., vanillylmandelic acid [VMA], metanephrine) has to be done to rule out concomitant pheochromocytoma in patients with MEN type 2A or 2B, as Pheochromocytoma must be treated before MTC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      282
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She also complains of loss of appetite for the past four months. Her admission CXR shows right-sided pleural effusion. An underlying malignancy is suspected and a series of tumour markers are requested, the results of which are:

      CA 19-9: 36 IU/mL (<40)
      CA 125: 654 IU/ml (<30)
      CA 15-3: 9 IU/ml (<40)

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian fibroma

      Explanation:

      The patient has Meigs syndrome. Meigs syndrome is defined as a triad of benign ovarian tumour with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumour. Ovarian fibromas constitute the majority of the benign tumours seen in Meigs syndrome.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations revealed low haemoglobin, a retic count of 8% and the occasional spherocyte on blood film. Which of the following is the most appropriate single investigation?

      Your Answer: Direct coombs test

      Explanation:

      A low haemoglobin and a high retic count is suggestive of a haemolytic anaemia. Occasional spherocytes can be seen on blood film during haemolysis and it is not a specific finding. Direct Coombs test will help to identify autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where there are antibodies attached to RBCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Correct

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition in which a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg.

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 18-year-old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?

      Your Answer: USG

      Correct Answer: Exploratory surgery

      Explanation:

      The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - How would you advise your patient to apply an emollient and a steroid...

    Incorrect

    • How would you advise your patient to apply an emollient and a steroid cream, in order to treat her eczema?

      Your Answer: Emollients at night with steroids

      Correct Answer: First use emollient then steroids.

      Explanation:

      If steroid is applied first, applying an emollient after could spread it from where it had been applied. If steroid is applied immediately after the emollient then it cannot be absorbed, this is why there should be a time interval of around thirty minutes between these two treatments in order for them to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know...

    Incorrect

    • A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis

      Explanation:

      West Nile virus is an RNA virus transmitted by the Culex species of mosquitoes. It is mostly prevalent in South America, Africa and some parts of Europe. Clinically it presents with high grade fever, headache, abdominal pain, anorexia and a morbilliform rash over the body. It can also lead to meningitis, encephalitis and flaccid paralysis by affecting the anterior horn cells, a process suggesting similarity to poliomyelitis. It can be fatal if not treated abruptly. Studies suggest that it can be transferred from mother to offspring. New-borns may present with encephalitis, chorioretinitis and wide spread brain damage. Patients suffering from West Nile virus can be effectively treated with interferon, IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine System & Metabolism (5/7) 71%
Cardiovascular System (0/2) 0%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (3/3) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (3/4) 75%
Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
The Skin (1/2) 50%
Passmed