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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is not an inducer of the Cytochrome P450 system?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an inducer of the Cytochrome P450 system?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome P450 is an important enzyme system involved in drug metabolism. Certain substances can either increase or decrease the activity of this system. Smoking, alcohol, barbiturates, carbamazepine, Phenytoin, and St John’s Wort are known to induce the activity of cytochrome P450. On the other hand, chlorpromazine, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), and grapefruit juice are known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What was one of the 'four humours' in classical Greek medicine? ...

    Correct

    • What was one of the 'four humours' in classical Greek medicine?

      Your Answer: Black bile

      Explanation:

      The ancient Greeks believed that the body’s health of illness was determined by the balance of four humours: black bile, yellow bile, blood, and phlegm. Each humour was linked to a specific mental state, with an excess of black bile being associated with a melancholic mood, which is where we get the word melancholy from.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale?

      Your Answer: It scores intelligence out of 20

      Correct Answer: It includes an assessment of working memory

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - On average, what percentage of people would score lower than 100 on an...

    Incorrect

    • On average, what percentage of people would score lower than 100 on an IQ test?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which extrapyramidal side effect is the most difficult to treat? ...

    Correct

    • Which extrapyramidal side effect is the most difficult to treat?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Treating akathisia is a challenging task, as there are limited options available. In many cases, the only viable solution is to decrease the use of antipsychotic medication.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the correct statement regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs)?

      Your Answer: Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ARDs

      Correct Answer: An ADR is a harmful outcome of a medication when used at a high dose

      Explanation:

      ADRs only occur when medications are used at ABNORMAL doses. (FALSE)

      Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.

      Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the entity that carries out phagocytosis in the central nervous system?...

    Correct

    • What is the entity that carries out phagocytosis in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.6
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  • Question 8 - What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a correct statement about antipsychotic depots?

      Your Answer: Administration of risperdal consta carries a risk of ‘post-injection syndrome’ which is characterised by sedation

      Correct Answer: A test dose is not required for paliperidone palmitate if a patient has received an oral loading dose

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is enlarged in individuals with schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is enlarged in individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: The ventricles

      Explanation:

      Ventricular enlargement is a common finding in individuals with schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves?

      Your Answer: Circular muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      Circular muscle of iris is exclusively supplied by the parasympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which language assessment is considered a neuropsychological test? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which language assessment is considered a neuropsychological test?

      Your Answer: Trail making test

      Correct Answer: Token test

      Explanation:

      The neuropsychological assessment includes the token test, which is a language test that uses various tokens, such as differently coloured rectangles and circular discs. The subject is given verbal instructions of increasing complexity to perform tasks with these tokens, and it is a sensitive measure of language comprehension impairment, particularly in cases of aphasia. Additionally, there are several tests of executive function that assess frontal lobe function, including the Stroop test, Tower of London test, Wisconsin card sorting test, Cognitive estimates test, Six elements test, Multiple errands task, and Trails making test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the most ancient technique employed for treating mental disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most ancient technique employed for treating mental disorders?

      Your Answer: Lobotomy

      Correct Answer: Trephination

      Explanation:

      Trephination, the act of creating a hole in a living person’s skull, is believed to be the earliest form of surgery. It was likely used to treat various ailments such as convulsions, headaches, infections, and fractures, of to allow the exit of entrance of spirits thought to cause illness. The practice was also used in ancient Egypt, where skull scrapings were used to create medicinal potions. Trephination was written about by both Hippocrates and Galen and continued to be performed throughout the Middle Ages and into the Renaissance. Evidence of successful operations can be seen in skulls that show bone regrowth, suggesting that many people survived the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about placebos? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about placebos?

      Your Answer: Inert placebos do not produce adverse effects

      Correct Answer: Placebo induced analgesia can be blocked by naloxone

      Explanation:

      Placebos that are inert can still cause negative effects.

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      26.7
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old individual reports experiencing a range of side effects after commencing a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old individual reports experiencing a range of side effects after commencing a combination of medications. Which of these symptoms would lead you to suspect that lithium is the culprit?

      Your Answer: Metallic taste

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.5
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old South Asian female graduate is preparing for a job interview.
    She reports...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old South Asian female graduate is preparing for a job interview.
      She reports difficulty focusing, forgetfulness, and persistent feelings of sadness. Additionally, she experiences tension in her head and neck and occasional vision disturbances.
      What culture-specific syndrome is most probable in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Brain fag

      Explanation:

      Culture-bound disorders are mental health conditions that are specific to certain cultural settings and may be related to other diagnostic categories such as anxiety disorders of psychosis. Examples of these disorders include windigo and brain fag, which are depressive states, latah and piblokto, which are hysterical states, and amok, which is a dissociative state.

      Brain fag is commonly observed in West African students and is a reaction to extreme stress, often related to school work. Symptoms include difficulty concentrating, memory problems, low mood, and sometimes pain around the head and neck, and blurred vision.

      Amok is a dissociative state that is more prevalent in Malaysia. It is characterized by symptoms such as neurasthenia, depersonalization, rage, automatism, and violent acts.

      Latah is a condition similar to Tourette’s syndrome, where an exaggerated startle response leads to abnormal behavior such as screaming, cursing, dancing movements, and uncontrollable laughter. Upon provocation, affected individuals may also shout obscene utterances, imitate a word, gesture, of action, of automatically obey commands that they would not normally follow.

      Piblokto, traditionally found among Eskimo women, presents with attacks of screaming, crying, and running naked through the snow.

      Wendigo is a depressive condition characterized by the delusion that one has become cannibalistic. It is mostly observed in Native Americans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is an instance of tertiary intervention? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an instance of tertiary intervention?

      Your Answer: Smoking cessation

      Correct Answer: Rehabilitation

      Explanation:

      The prevention of a disease can be divided into three levels: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Tertiary prevention focuses on minimizing the effects of an existing disease and helping individuals achieve their optimal level of functioning. Primary prevention involves implementing broad changes to decrease the overall risk of a disease in a population, such as promoting healthy nutrition, positive parenting, and smoking cessation. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention through screening programs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the metabolism of clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the metabolism of clozapine?

      Your Answer: CYP2D6

      Correct Answer: CYP1A2

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following eosinophilic inclusion bodies are observed as a neuropathological discovery...

    Correct

    • Which of the following eosinophilic inclusion bodies are observed as a neuropathological discovery in individuals with Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Hirano bodies

      Explanation:

      Hirano bodies, Pick bodies, Lewy bodies, Negri bodies, and Barr bodies are all types of inclusion bodies that can be seen in various cells. Hirano bodies are rod-shaped structures found in the cytoplasm of neurons, composed of actin and other proteins. They are commonly seen in the hippocampus, along with granulovacuolar degeneration, which may represent lysosomal accumulations within neuronal cytoplasm. The clinical significance of these microscopic features is not yet fully understood. Pick bodies are masses of cytoskeletal elements seen in Pick’s disease, while Lewy bodies are abnormal protein aggregates that develop in nerve cells in Lewy body disease. Negri bodies are inclusion bodies seen in rabies, and Barr bodies are inactive X chromosomes in a female somatic cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department 2 days after receiving a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department 2 days after receiving a test dose of zuclopenthixol decanoate. She is experiencing confusion, sweating, fever, and significant muscle stiffness. What diagnostic tests would be useful in determining the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Serum creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      The combination of the patient’s symptoms and medical history strongly suggests the presence of neuromuscular malignant syndrome. To confirm the diagnosis, a serum creatine kinase test would be the most beneficial investigation to conduct. Although creatine kinase is a highly sensitive marker for muscle tissue damage, it is not specific to this condition and may also be elevated in other conditions such as acute alcohol intoxication of acute psychosis.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not have an effect on GABA?

      Your Answer: Zopiclone

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of phenytoin involves the stabilization of sodium channels.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.1
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  • Question 21 - What is a true statement about Torsades de pointes? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Torsades de pointes?

      Your Answer: It is often transient

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes may not be present on an ECG even if the patient experiences recurring episodes, as it has a tendency to appear and disappear.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      53.9
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  • Question 22 - What is the definition of delusional perception? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of delusional perception?

      Your Answer: A delusion arising from an abnormal affect

      Correct Answer: A normal perception followed by a delusional interpretation

      Explanation:

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      15.9
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  • Question 23 - Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine?

      Your Answer: Clomipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.8
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  • Question 24 - What specific warnings should be given to patients who are prescribed tranylcypromine? ...

    Correct

    • What specific warnings should be given to patients who are prescribed tranylcypromine?

      Your Answer: Hypertensive crisis

      Explanation:

      It is important to provide education to patients who are prescribed MAOIs regarding the dietary restrictions that must be followed in order to avoid a hypertensive crisis.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 25 - In terms of educational psychology, what is the term for a reinforcement schedule...

    Correct

    • In terms of educational psychology, what is the term for a reinforcement schedule where reinforcement is provided consistently but the amount of responses needed varies from one instance to the next?

      Your Answer: Variable ratio

      Explanation:

      BF Skinner’s theory states that behavior is influenced by its consequences, which can be positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, of punishment. The frequency and consistency of these consequences, as determined by different reinforcement schedules, can shape and maintain behavior in various ways. Common reinforcement schedules include continuous reinforcement, fixed interval, fixed ratio, variable interval, and variable ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 26 - Which of the options below is not an accepted method for screening alcohol-related...

    Correct

    • Which of the options below is not an accepted method for screening alcohol-related issues?

      Your Answer: PACE

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 27 - What is the accuracy of psychiatric diagnosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accuracy of psychiatric diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Is increased by semi-structured interviews

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric diagnosis reliability can be measured through observer and interview methods. With skilled practitioners, psychiatric diagnoses are now as reliable as clinical judgments in other medical fields, and sometimes even more so. To increase reliability and reduce disagreement, structured of standardized interviews can be used, along with definitions for all psychopathology items covered by the interview and operational definitions to ensure consistent diagnoses. The WHO conducted field trials in 1986, which showed almost global acceptability, coverage, and inter-rater reliability of psychiatric diagnostic categories. While reliability and validity are independent, reliability sets a limit on validity. Diagnostic criteria and standardized interview schedules have been proven to increase psychiatric diagnosis reliability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      66.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is not an inhibitor of the Cytochrome P450 system?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an inhibitor of the Cytochrome P450 system?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Certain substances can either induce or inhibit the activity of enzymes responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Inducers include smoking, alcohol, barbiturates, carbamazepine, Phenytoin, and St John’s Wort, while inhibitors include chlorpromazine, SSRIs, and grapefruit juice.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An evaluator asks a child to list all the fruits they know that...

    Correct

    • An evaluator asks a child to list all the fruits they know that start with the letter A. What particular aspect of cognitive function is being evaluated?

      Your Answer: Executive function

      Explanation:

      Verbal fluency can be demonstrated by listing as many animals as possible within a minute using a specific letter.

      The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Among the given defence mechanisms, which one falls under the category of neurotic?...

    Correct

    • Among the given defence mechanisms, which one falls under the category of neurotic?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      45.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (7/12) 58%
History Of Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Classification And Assessment (3/7) 43%
Neurosciences (3/4) 75%
Neuro-anatomy (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Basic Psychological Processes (1/1) 100%
Assessment (1/1) 100%
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