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Question 1
Correct
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What is a true statement about statistical power?
Your Answer: The larger the sample size of a study the greater the power
Explanation:The Importance of Power in Statistical Analysis
Power is a crucial concept in statistical analysis as it helps researchers determine the number of participants needed in a study to detect a clinically significant difference of effect. It represents the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, which means avoiding a Type II error. Power values range from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.
Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more precise parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. Effect size, which is determined at the beginning of a study, refers to the size of the difference between two means that leads to rejecting the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, represents the probability of a Type I error. By considering these factors, researchers can optimize the power of their studies and increase the likelihood of detecting meaningful effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Sulpiride
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined?
Your Answer: Allosteric modulation
Correct Answer: Enzyme induction
Explanation:Allosteric modulators bind to different sites on the receptor than the probe molecules (such as agonists of radioligands), and can alter the way they interact. This can lead to modifications in the effectiveness and/of strength of agonists.
Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types
Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Who was the first psychiatrist to utilize electroconvulsive therapy as a treatment method?
Your Answer: Carl Jung
Correct Answer: Ugo Cerletti
Explanation:Ugo Cerletti was a neurologist from Italy who is known for his work in developing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Emil Kraepelin, considered the founder of modern scientific psychiatry, coined the term dementia praecox. Eugen Bleuler, on the other hand, replaced the term with schizophrenia. Karl Jaspers, a psychiatrist and existential philosopher, made significant contributions to the field. Lastly, Carl Jung founded analytical psychology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged as follows:
Your Answer: Molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform
Explanation:The layers of neocortex from outermost to innermost include: the molecular, external granular layer, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal and multiform layer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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Your consultant calls you into his room to show you an interesting case. When you enter you see a middle-aged female sat in a chair. The consultant places a hairbrush next to her which she immediately picks up and starts brushing her hair with. Which of the following terms best describes this observation?:
Your Answer: Utilization behaviour
Explanation:Abnormal Motor Behaviours Associated with Utilization Behaviour
Utilization behaviour (UB) is a condition where patients exhibit exaggerated and inappropriate motor responses to environmental cues and objects. This behaviour is automatic and instrumentally correct, but not contextually appropriate. For instance, a patient may start brushing their teeth when presented with a toothbrush, even in a setting where it is not expected. UB is caused by frontal lobe lesions that result in a loss of inhibitory control.
Other motor abnormalities associated with UB include imitation behaviour, where patients tend to imitate the examiner’s behaviour, and the alien hand sign, where patients experience bizarre hand movements that they cannot control. Manual groping behaviour is also observed, where patients automatically manipulate objects placed in front of them. The grasp reflex, which is normal in infants, should not be present in children and adults. It is an automatic tendency to grip objects of stimuli, such as the examiner’s hand.
Environmental Dependency Syndrome is another condition associated with UB. It describes deficits in personal control of action and an overreliance on social and physical environmental stimuli to guide behaviour in a social context. For example, a patient may start commenting on pictures in an examiner’s office, believing it to be an art gallery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 7
Correct
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Which topic is covered by the Fraser Guidelines?
Your Answer: The provision of contraceptives to people 16 and under
Explanation:Gillick Competency and Fraser Guidelines
Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines refer to a legal case which looked specifically at whether doctors should be able to give contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent. But since then, they have been more widely used to help assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and to understand the implications of those decisions.
In 1982, Mrs Victoria Gillick took her local health authority (West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority) and the Department of Health and Social Security to court in an attempt to stop doctors from giving contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent.
The case went to the High Court where Mr Justice Woolf dismissed Mrs Gillick’s claims. The Court of Appeal reversed this decision, but in 1985 it went to the House of Lords and the Law Lords (Lord Scarman, Lord Fraser and Lord Bridge) ruled in favour of the original judgement delivered by Mr Justice Woolf.
The Fraser Guidelines were laid down by Lord Fraser in the House of Lords’ case and state that it is lawful for doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent providing that they are satisfied that:
– The young person will understand the professional’s advice
– The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
– The young person is likely to begin, of to continue having, sexual intercourse with of without contraceptive treatment
– Unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical of mental health, of both, are likely to suffer
– The young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice of treatment with of without parental consent. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An EEG analysis indicates the presence of a mass in the brain. What were the observed wave patterns?
Your Answer: Beta activity (β)
Correct Answer: Delta activity (δ)
Explanation:While alpha (α) and beta (β) activity are typical in adults who are awake and at rest, delta activity (δ) may suggest the presence of a brain tumor. Mu (μ) activity is linked to movement, and theta activity (θ) is uncommon in the waking adult population, occurring briefly in only 15% of individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 9
Correct
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A teenager who is not compliant with their medicine says they just forget to take it. The therapist points out that when they stop the medication they end up missing school and social activities. Which technique is the therapist using?
Your Answer: Confrontation
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Confrontation
Confrontation is a technique that can be employed during patient interviews to draw their attention to a particular issue. However, it is crucial to use this technique with care as it can potentially lead to the patient becoming defensive of hostile. Therefore, it is essential to approach confrontation tactfully and with sensitivity. By doing so, the interviewer can effectively communicate their concerns to the patient without causing any unnecessary tension of conflict. Proper use of confrontation can help patients recognize and address problematic behaviors of attitudes, leading to positive outcomes in their treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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Which brain system enables the integration of emotional sensory information between the cortex and hypothalamus?
Your Answer: Papez circuit
Explanation:In 1937, James Papez proposed a neural circuit that explained how emotional experiences occur in the brain. According to Papez, sensory messages related to emotional stimuli are first received by the thalamus, which then directs them to both the cortex (stream of thinking) and hypothalamus (stream of feeling). The cingulate cortex integrates this information from the hypothalamus and sensory cortex, leading to emotional experiences. The output via the hippocampus and hypothalamus allows cortical control of emotional responses. This circuit has since been reconceptualized as the limbic system.
The medial longitudinal fasciculus carries fibres from cranial nerves III, IV and IV. The nucleus accumbens plays a major role in the reward circuit, while the somatosensory cortex is involved in processing pain. The basal ganglia are involved in voluntary motor control.
Overall, the Papez circuit theory provides a framework for understanding the functional neuroanatomy of emotion. It highlights the importance of the limbic system in emotional experiences and the role of various brain regions in processing different aspects of emotional stimuli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding adverse drug reactions (ADRs)?
Your Answer: Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ARDs
Correct Answer: An ADR is a harmful outcome of a medication when used at a high dose
Explanation:ADRs only occur when medications are used at ABNORMAL doses. (FALSE)
Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.
Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?
Your Answer: 2C8
Correct Answer: 2D6
Explanation:Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Select the atypical antipsychotic with the shortest half-life.
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Due to its short half-life of 6 hours, quetiapine is administered twice daily in divided doses. However, a modified release version called Seroquel XL is available, which can be taken once daily.
Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.
Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.
Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the primary component of alpha-synuclein?
Your Answer: Lewy bodies
Explanation:Lewy body dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopically, there is cerebral atrophy, but it is less marked than in Alzheimer’s disease, and the brain weight is usually in the normal range. There is also pallor of the substantia nigra and the locus coeruleus, which are regions of the brain that produce dopamine and norepinephrine, respectively.
Microscopically, Lewy body dementia is characterized by the presence of intracellular protein accumulations called Lewy bodies. The major component of a Lewy body is alpha synuclein, and as they grow, they start to draw in other proteins such as ubiquitin. Lewy bodies are also found in Alzheimer’s disease, but they tend to be in the amygdala. They can also be found in healthy individuals, although it has been suggested that these may be pre-clinical cases of dementia with Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies are also found in other neurodegenerative disorders such as progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, and multiple system atrophy.
In Lewy body dementia, Lewy bodies are mainly found within the brainstem, but they are also found in non-brainstem regions such as the amygdaloid nucleus, parahippocampal gyrus, cingulate cortex, and cerebral neocortex. Classic brainstem Lewy bodies are spherical intraneuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, characterized by hyaline eosinophilic cores, concentric lamellar bands, narrow pale halos, and immunoreactivity for alpha synuclein and ubiquitin. In contrast, cortical Lewy bodies typically lack a halo.
Most brains with Lewy body dementia also show some plaques and tangles, although in most instances, the lesions are not nearly as severe as in Alzheimer’s disease. Neuronal loss and gliosis are usually restricted to brainstem regions, particularly the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 15
Correct
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Which antipsychotic is most strongly linked to sudden death?
Your Answer: Thioridazine
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sudden Death: Thioridazine and QTc Prolongation
Antipsychotic medications are known to carry a risk of sudden death, particularly due to their effects on cardiac function. Thioridazine, in particular, has been found to have pronounced effects on potassium channels and significantly prolongs the QTc interval, which is a measure of the time it takes for the heart to repolarize after each beat. This prolongation can lead to a potentially fatal arrhythmia known as torsades de pointes. As a result, thioridazine is most strongly associated with sudden death among antipsychotics.
However, all antipsychotics carry some degree of risk for QTc prolongation and should be closely monitored for changes in this interval. This is especially important for patients with preexisting cardiac conditions of other risk factors for arrhythmias. Regular electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring may be necessary to detect any changes in QTc interval and adjust medication accordingly. By carefully monitoring patients and taking appropriate precautions, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of sudden death associated with antipsychotic use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following may be considered a leading question?
Your Answer: Have you noticed anything that triggers changes in your mood?
Correct Answer: Do you find your mood is worse in the morning?
Explanation:It may be more effective to ask open-ended questions at the beginning of an interview to gather as much information as possible. Closed questions can be used later in the interview to clarify specific points. However, it is important to avoid leading questions that may influence the patient’s response. For example, instead of asking if the patient feels worse in the morning, a more open question such as Can you describe your mood throughout the day? may be more appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History And Mental State
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What was the interview method utilized in the epidemiological catchment area study?
Your Answer: Clinical interview schedule-revised (CIS-R)
Correct Answer: Diagnostic interview schedule (DIS)
Explanation:The epidemiological catchment area (ECA) study conducted in the USA during the 1980s was a significant study that utilized the diagnostic interview schedule (DIS) to interview individuals across five sites. This study provided valuable information about the prevalence of mental disorders in the USA.
The ONS 2000 psychiatric morbidity survey utilized the clinical interview schedule-revised (CIS-R), which can be administered by lay interviewers. The Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) is another structured interview used by the World Health Organization (WHO) to assess individuals according to ICD-10 and DSM IV. The Psychosis Screening Questionnaire (PSQ) was also used in the ONS 2000 psychiatric morbidity survey.
The Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV (SCID) was used in the European Study of Epidemiology of Mental Disorders (ESEMeD). These various diagnostic tools and surveys provide valuable information about the prevalence and diagnosis of mental disorders. For further reading, resources such as the Harvard Medical School and National Institute of Mental Health provide additional information on these diagnostic tools and their uses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Who coined the term 'punch drunk syndrome'?
Your Answer: Bleuler
Correct Answer: Martland
Explanation:Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma
Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.
Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.
Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.
While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of memory problems, frequent falls, and disrupted REM sleep. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:In addition to fluctuating cognition and visual hallucinations, Lewy body dementia often involves sensitivity to neuroleptics. Patients may also experience falls and REM sleep disorder as common symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Correct
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A teenager you are caring for is prescribed imipramine for depression. What combination of side-effects is most commonly observed in patients taking this type of antidepressant medication?
Your Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth
Explanation:Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.
Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.
Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse?
Your Answer: Consists of 5 questions
Correct Answer: May be stopped after first question depending on the answer
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Who is the psychiatrist known for writing 'The Divided Self' and whose work has been the subject of controversy?
Your Answer: Anthony Clare
Correct Answer: R D Laing
Explanation:In 1960, psychiatrist R D (Ronald David) Laing, a Scottish author, published ‘The Divided Self’, which made him a significant figure in the antipsychiatry movement. Despite acknowledging the importance of treating mental distress, he believed that ‘schizophrenia was a theory, not a fact.’ Other notable authors in the field of psychiatry include Anthony Clare, who wrote ‘Psychiatry in Dissent,’ Carl Jung, who wrote ‘The Red Book,’ Scott Peck, who wrote ‘The Road Less Travelled,’ and Thomas Szasz, who wrote ‘The Myth of Mental Illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the meaning of the term vorbeigehen?
Your Answer: Being hysterical
Correct Answer: Giving approximate answers
Explanation:Mitgehen, also known as the ‘anglepoise sign’, refers to a phenomenon where a patient moves in response to very slight pressure, indicating a lack of resistance of rigidity in their muscles. This can be observed in various conditions, including Parkinson’s disease and catatonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 24
Correct
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What hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone
Explanation:The hormone ADH (also known as vasopressin) is released from the posterior pituitary gland and promotes water retention and increased blood pressure by constricting arterioles. Conversely, the hormones ACTH, growth hormone, luteinizing hormone, and thyroid stimulating hormone are all released from the anterior pituitary gland and have various effects on the body, such as stimulating hormone production in the adrenal glands, promoting bone and muscle growth, regulating sex gland function, and stimulating the release of thyroxine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Who coined the term 'schizoaffective disorder'?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Jakob Kasanin
Explanation:Several notable psychiatrists have made significant contributions to the field of mental health. Jakob Kasanin, born in Russia in 1897, introduced the term schizoaffective psychosis in his 1933 paper published in the American Journal of Psychiatry. Karl Theodor Jaspers, a German psychiatrist and philosopher, distinguished between true delusions and delusional-like ideas. Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum, also a German psychiatrist, pioneered modern clinical practices in mental health and conducted research on catatonia. Kurt Schneider, another German psychiatrist, is known for his work on the diagnosis and understanding of schizophrenia, including his compilation of first-rank symptoms that are particularly characteristic of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following sites is not recognized for drug metabolism?
Your Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation:Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion
Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.
Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.
Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of delayed linguistic development?
Your Answer: Being male
Correct Answer: Being an only child
Explanation:Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language
The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.
However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male is experiencing difficulty walking of standing normally. He presents to the Emergency department and is observed swaying from side to side, almost falling before recovering. What is the specific name for this condition?
Your Answer: Somatisation
Correct Answer: Blocq's disease
Explanation:Blocq’s disease, also known as astasia-abasia, is a conversion symptom characterized by an abnormal gait that is not indicative of any organic lesion. Hypochondriasis is excessive worry about having a serious illness despite the absence of a medical condition. Malingering involves fabricating symptoms for secondary gain, while somatization is a chronic condition with multiple physical complaints for which no physical cause can be found and is associated with frequent medical contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia believes that his thoughts are being stolen from his mind every night. When asked for proof, he points to the clouds in the sky, claiming they are taking his thoughts away. Which of the following is the most probable delusion?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Delusions are false beliefs that are fixed and can be categorized as primary of secondary. Primary delusions include delusional intuition, delusional perception, delusional atmosphere, and delusional memory. Delusional atmosphere refers to a feeling that something is not right in the world around the patient, without any change in perception. Delusional intuition arises suddenly and occurs in a single stage, while delusional perception is a two-stage phenomenon where the patient misinterprets a normal perception with a delusional meaning. Delusional memory involves remembering past events with a delusional meaning. An example of delusional perception is when a patient misinterprets the marks of freckles and believes that water is being taken out of their body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is excluded from the frontal assessment battery?
Your Answer: The Go-No Go test
Correct Answer: Asking the patient to draw a clock
Explanation:The Frontal Assessment Battery (FAB) is a quick and easy bedside test used to detect the dysexecutive syndrome. It consists of six subsets, including conceptualization, mental flexibility, motor programming, conflicting instructions, go-no go (inhibitory control), and prehension behavior. The test assesses a patient’s ability to perform tasks such as abstract reasoning, verbal fluency, and motor skills. The FAB can be completed in just a few minutes and is a useful tool for clinicians in evaluating patients with suspected executive dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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