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  • Question 1 - You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually worsening itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some bloods. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?

      Your Answer: Bilirubin

      Correct Answer: ALP

      Explanation:

      ALP can rise to up to 3 times the normal non-pregnant value in the 3rd trimester. All of the other tests above typically decrease during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation.

      One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3).

      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.

      Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.

      Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
      It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.

      Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.

      Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: < 5 cm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      79.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen receptors?

      Your Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene citrate is widely used in the induction of ovulation, especially in the treatment of anovulatory infertility and in conditions such as PCOS. The drug functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, which acts in the hypothalamus to indicate low serum oestrogen levels. Reduced levels of negative feedback stimulate the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulate the production of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the anterior pituitary. These work to increase ovarian follicular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      92.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:...

    Correct

    • The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:

      Your Answer: Crown rump length

      Explanation:

      Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent CT scan. Last week, the patient was involved in a car accident and had a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to rule out any intraabdominal trauma. The CT scan revealed a uterus that was significantly enlarged, with several intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata that did not squeeze the ureters or the surrounding intestine. The patient has a monthly menstrual period with light bleeding lasting four days. On the first day of her monthly period, she normally has stomach discomfort but does not require pain medication. There are no changes in bowel habits, urine frequency, urgency, or chronic pelvic pain in the patient. She doesn't have any chronic illnesses and doesn't use any drugs on a daily basis. The patient is in a monogamous, same-sex relationship and experiences no discomfort during sexual activity. The vital signs are OK, and the BMI is 24 kilograms per square metre. The lower abdomen has an irregularly expanded mass, which is consistent with uterine leiomyomata.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Observation and reassurance only

      Explanation:

      Leiomyomas uterine (fibroids)
      Clinical features:
      Menses that are heavy and last a long time, symptoms of pressure, pelvic discomfort, constipation, frequency of urination, complications during pregnancy, fertility problems, loss of pregnancy, premature birth, uterus enlargement and irregularity

      Workup:
      Ultrasound

      Treatment:
      Asymptomatic: monitoring
      Surgical intervention, hormonal contraception

      This patient has uterine leiomyomata, or fibroids, which are benign smooth muscle (myometrial) tumours that are very prevalent in adult women (up to 25%). These tumours can expand the endometrium’s surface area, the uterus’ overall size and thickness, and compress adjacent structures; nevertheless, some individuals have no symptoms and are identified by chance during a physical examination or imaging (as in this patient’s CT scan after a car accident).
      Heavy, prolonged menses are among the indications for uterine leiomyomata treatment (particularly if associated with anaemia).
      Pelvic discomfort that persists (e.g., dyspareunia).
      Symptoms in abundance (e.g., pelvic pressure, hydronephrosis, constipation).
      Recurrent miscarriages.
      Medical or surgical treatment options are available for patients with these clinical characteristics (e.g., myomectomy).

      This woman had mild menses and no pelvic discomfort or mass symptoms while having many big intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata (e.g., no ureter compression). There is no need for extra treatment in persons with asymptomatic fibroids. Only observation and reassurance are required.
      In the treatment of symptomatic fibroids, a combination of oral contraceptive pills and progestin-containing intrauterine devices can be utilised, although they are not required in the management of asymptomatic fibroids. Furthermore, this patient has a minimal risk of unwanted pregnancy (e.g., monogamous, same-sex relationship), and the hazards of these contraceptives (e.g., venous thromboembolism, uterine perforation) outweigh the benefits.

      GnRH agonist therapy (e.g., leuprolide) is a treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids that works by inhibiting pulsatile FSH and LH production in the hypothalamus, lowering oestrogen levels. Low oestrogen levels cause a temporary reduction in leiomyoma size, which helps with heavy menses and bulky symptoms. Because long-term usage of GnRH agonists is linked to an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, they are only administered preoperatively.

      Tranexamic acid is a nonhormonal medicinal medication that reduces heavy menstrual bleeding by preventing fibrin breakdown (i.e., an antifibrinolytic drug). This patient’s menses are light.
      Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids) are benign myometrial tumours that can produce a range of symptoms but are often identified by chance. Heavy menstrual blood, pelvic pain, and bulk symptoms are all indications for treatment. Patients with asymptomatic fibroids merely need to be monitored and reassured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with hirsutism and facial pimples on her face and peri areolar areas, as well as a masculine escutcheon. Serum LH levels range from 1.9 to 12.5 IU/L, whereas FSH levels range from 4.5 to 21.5 IU/L. The levels of androstenedione and testosterone are somewhat higher, while the serum DHAS is normal. The patient does not want to start a family right now.

      Which of the single medications listed below is the best therapy for her condition?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptives

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture, unusually high LH-to-FSH ratio (which should ordinarily be around 1:1), and higher androgens but normal DHAS all point to polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). DHAS is an indicator of adrenal androgen production; when normal, it rules out adrenal hyperandrogenism. Several drugs have been used to treat PCOS-related hirsutism. Contraceptives were the most often used medications for many years; they can decrease hair growth in up to two-thirds of individuals. They work by decreasing ovarian steroid production and increasing hepatic-binding globulin production, which binds circulating hormones and lowers metabolically active (unbound) androgen concentrations. Clinical improvement, on the other hand, can take up to 6 months to show.
      Medroxyprogesterone acetate, spironolactone, cimetidine, and GnRH agonists, all of which decrease ovarian steroid synthesis, have also shown potential. GnRH analogues, on the other hand, are costly and have been linked to severe bone demineralization in some patients after only 6 months of treatment. Given the efficacy of pharmacologic medications and the ovarian adhesions that were usually linked with this surgery, surgical wedge resection is no longer regarded as an appropriate therapy for PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      78
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies.

      A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules.

      Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Axillary node dissection

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.

      There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.

      Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment ...

    Correct

    • The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The T10 spinal segment provides the sympathetic nerve fibres that innervate the testes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It rests on the Ethmoid bone in the skull base

      Correct Answer: It is surrounded by the sella turcica

      Explanation:

      The Sella turcica is composed of three parts:
      1. The tuberculum sellae (horn of saddle): a variable slight to prominent median elevation forming the posterior
      boundary of the prechiasmatic sulcus and the anterior boundary of the hypophysial fossa.
      2. The hypophysial fossa (pituitary fossa): a median depression (seat of saddle) in the body of the sphenoid that accommodates the pituitary gland (L. hypophysis).
      3. The dorsum sellae (back of saddle): a square plate of bone projecting superiorly from the body of the sphenoid.
      It forms the posterior boundary of the Sella turcica, and its prominent superolateral angles make up the posterior clinoid processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?

      Your Answer: Are usually less than 5 feet tall

      Correct Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant

      Explanation:

      Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant.

      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F).

      Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.

      The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.

      The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding

      The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.

      Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Incorrect

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Progesterone and Oestrogen

      Correct Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      103.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasonography to check for fetal intrauterine growth restriction

      Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.

      → Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
      → It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
      → Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks...

    Incorrect

    • When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks pee. She also claims that she has the urge to pass pee 10-12 times a day, and that she can't go to the restroom half of the time. She appears to have a harder time with urgency. Infections are not found in a urine test. Except for a residual amount of 125cc, an ultrasound scan of the bladder, ureter, and kidneys is inconclusive.

      Which of the following treatment options is the best fit for her?

      Your Answer: Anterior colporrhaphy

      Correct Answer: Bladder training

      Explanation:

      This woman has mixed incontinence, which includes signs and symptoms of both stresses and urges incontinence. The urge, on the other hand, irritates her. Bladder training would be the most appropriate management approach to investigate first for women with urge incontinence as the most troublesome symptom. The objectives are:
      – Using a bladder diary to establish a baseline
      – Creating a voiding schedule
      – Over a long period, gradually increase the voiding interval in increments of 2- 5 minutes, to void every 3 hours.
      – Other important strategies to consider are lifestyle changes like reducing fluid intake, losing weight, and avoiding diuretics-producing foods and beverages (e.g., alcoholic beverages, caffeine, etc).

      When urge incontinence does not respond to physical or behavioural therapy, anticholinergics along with ongoing bladder training are an alternative. A 4- to 6-week trial is employed. At six months, risk and benefit are weighed to see if treatment should be continued for those who react. Patients should be informed about anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth and constipation, as well as how to control them.

      Anterior colporrhaphy is a treatment for cystocele that involves repairing the front vaginal wall. It can help people with urine incontinence. If you don’t have a cystocele, bladder neck suspension is the best option.
      Retropubic bladder suspension is a more intrusive surgery for treating stress urinary incontinence in patients who haven’t responded to less invasive treatments like pelvic floor exercise.

      The most essential initial conservative therapy to explore for patients with real stress incontinence and mixed (both stress and urge) urine incontinence when stress incontinence is the more prominent symptom is pelvic floor muscle exercise (e.g. Kegel exercise). For urge incontinence, more difficult training can be applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: 35%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior or posterior fetal shoulder impacts on the maternal symphysis or sacrum and may require additional manevours to release the shoulders after gentle downward traction has failed. The most common injury that can occur, is to the brachial plexus due to lateral flexion of the head during traction. This may cause a neurological disability, Erb’s Palsy ( injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus) in which there is a less than 10% chance that this injury would be permanent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on vaginal swab is going into labour. A normal vaginal delivery is planned. She is penicillin allergic with a history of anaphylaxis. What intrapartum antibiotic treatment is advised?

      Your Answer: IV Vancomycin 1g 12 hourly

      Explanation:

      In a person who is infected by streptococcus (Group B) should be started on benzylpenicillin as soon as possible. In case of allergy vancomycin should be started at 1g every 12 hours. Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Ofloxacin 400mg once a day for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Escherichia Coli

      Explanation:

      The most common causative agent found in female urinary tract infections is Escherichia Coli. E. Coli is a bacteria found in the environment and the human gastrointestinal system. Other common causes of UTI include Klebsiella sp, Proteus sp and various Enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      84.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Correct Answer: 46XY

      Explanation:

      Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart...

    Incorrect

    • Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart shows that his mother has been abusing intravenous drugs until late this pregnancy.

      You will not discharge this baby home after delivery in all of the following conditions except?

      Your Answer: A court order preventing baby from being discharged home

      Correct Answer: Weight loss greater than two percent of birth weight

      Explanation:

      If a mother has been abusing drugs during antenatal period, there are some contraindications to discharge her baby home. These conditions includes:
      – excessive weight loss, which is greater than ten percent of birth weigh
      – suspected baby neglect or abuse
      – suspected domestic violence
      – a court order preventing baby from being discharged home or if there is requirement for further assessment of withdrawal symptoms.

      A 2-3 percentages weight loss during the early neonatal period is considered to be a normal finding and is therefore not considered as a contraindication to discharge the baby home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound? ...

    Correct

    • What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 7.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The ultrasound used a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies?

      Your Answer: 1 in 10

      Correct Answer: 1 in 150

      Explanation:

      CMV effects 1 in 200 pregnancies of which 30% will transmit the virus to the foetus and of which 30% foetus will be effected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister.

      What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?

      Your Answer: An endometrial polyp.

      Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.

      Explanation:

      It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.

      While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30 year old patient attends for non-invasive pre-natal screening for Down's syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old patient attends for non-invasive pre-natal screening for Down's syndrome. You advise her that the result will take the form of a risk score and higher risk results will be offered CVS or amniocentesis. What is the cut-off figure between low and high risk?

      Your Answer: 1 in 50

      Correct Answer: 1 in 150

      Explanation:

      1 in 150 is the cut off. Where pre-natal screening shows a risk of 1 in 150 or greater invasive testing is typically offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow.

      Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She recently underwent right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor.  She was on an aromatase inhibitor as adjuvant therapy, which was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. At present, she is scheduled for a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. Patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin.  Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago. Patient's father had a myocardial infarction at the age 64; otherwise her family history is noncontributory. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her vital signs seems stable, with a BMI of 21 kg/m2.

      Patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which among the following complications mentioned below is this patient at greatest risk of developing, due to tamoxifen therapy?

      Your Answer: Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries

      Correct Answer: Hyperplasia of the endometrium

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are drugs which acts as selective estrogen receptor modulators.
      Their mechanisms of action are competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding and mixed agonist/antagonist action respectively.
      Commonly indicated in prevention of breast cancer in high-risk patients. Tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and Raloxifene in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
      Adverse effects include:
      – Hot flashes
      – Venous thromboembolism
      – Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
      – Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)
      Adjuvant endocrine therapy is commonly used option for treatment of nonmetastatic, hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer; and the most commonly used endocrine agents include tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, and ovarian suppression via GnRH agonists or surgery.

      Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator which is an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast.  It is the most preferred adjuvant treatment for pre-menopausal women at low risk of breast cancer recurrence.  Tamoxifen is also a second-line endocrine adjuvant agent for postmenopausal women who cannot use aromatase inhibitor therapy due to intolerable side effects.
      Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and stimulates excessive proliferation of endometrium. Therefore, tamoxifen use is associated with endometrial polyps in premenopausal women, and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in postmenopausal women. These effects will continue throughout the duration of therapy and resolves once the treatment is discontinued. Even with all these possible complications, benefits of tamoxifen to improve the survival from breast cancer outweighs the risk of endometrial cancer.

      In postmenopausal women, tamoxifen has some estrogen-like activity on the bone, which can increase bone mineral density and thereby reduce the incidence of osteoporosis significantly.  However, tamoxifen is generally not a first-line agent for osteoporosis in treatment due to the marked risk of endometrial cancer.

      Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone is typically caused due to chronic infection by human papillomavirus, and tamoxifen has no known effects on the cervix.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with any increased risk for adenomyosis, which is characterised by ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium.

      Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries is a precursor lesion for atherosclerosis. Tamoxifen helps to decrease blood cholesterol level and thereby protect against coronary artery disease.

      Tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist on breast tissue and is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, but it also acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and increases the risk of development of endometrial polyps, hyperplasia, and cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
      10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - At birth, approximately how many oocytes are present in the ovaries? ...

    Incorrect

    • At birth, approximately how many oocytes are present in the ovaries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 million

      Explanation:

      Female infants are thought to be born with the total number of gametes they will posses in their lifetime. About 1 million healthy oocytes are present at birth. However, only about 300,000 of these oocytes survive to puberty, a number which continues to decline until all the oocytes are depleted triggering menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (0/4) 0%
Gynaecology (3/7) 43%
Biophysics (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (4/5) 80%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Embryology (2/3) 67%
Microbiology (2/4) 50%
Data Interpretation (0/1) 0%
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