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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female with a known diagnosis of hypothyroidism and receiving thyroxine, came to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty sleeping for 3 days and a history of jaundice for 7 days. Her lab results showed increased levels of TSH and PT=70 sec. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute liver failure
Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Explanation:Autoimmune hepatitis is linked with other autoimmune diseases, such as hypothyroidism. It may present as acute or chronic hepatitis and sometimes cirrhosis. Fever, hepatic tenderness and history of jaundice is present. Non-specific features like behavioural issues, weight changes or mood swings can also be present. Coagulopathy can also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary System
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Question 2
Correct
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You are asked to fill the first part of a cremation form. Which of the following would need to be removed prior to cremation?
Your Answer: Pacemaker
Explanation:Pacemakers have small electrical parts installed in them that can explode when exposed to extreme heat and pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethical & Legal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 23-year-old female visited the OPD with a complaint of postcoital bleeding as well as excessive vaginal discharge. Her past medical history is positive for oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following investigations would you recommend in this case?
Your Answer: Speculum with or without cervical smear
Explanation:A speculum test is necessary in order to visualize the cervix to rule out cervical ectropion that may be responsible for the post-coital bleeding. A smear is not necessary if the cervix is adequately visualized, however, it can rule out infection as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Women's Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?
Your Answer: His dysphagia is due to compression by the tumour
Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash
Explanation:The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old male with Down's Syndrome was found to have a systolic murmur during routine clinical examination. Which of the following is the most common cardiac defect associated with Down's Syndrome which will explain this finding?
Your Answer: Endocardial cushion defect
Explanation:Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD) also known as endocardial cushion defect is the most common cardiac abnormality in Down’s Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 74-year-old male has received his 3rd cycle of chemotherapy for malignant melanoma 3 days ago. He is presented with a productive cough with greenish sputum. Otherwise he feels well. On examination, he has scattered crepitations, more on the lower right part of the chest. He is afebrile. His labs are: Hb 12.5, TLC 0.9 *10^9 , Plt. 84*10^9. Pan culture was collected and sent. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotic (intravenous)
Explanation:This is a case of hospital acquired infection in an immunocompromised patient. It should be treated vigorously. On the other hand, patients who receive chemotherapy usually have atrophic gastritis and malabsorption syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 7
Correct
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A 38-year-old male presented to the outpatient clinic complaining of a right sided groin mass just above and lateral to the pubic tubercle. It is non-tender and reducible. There is no cough impulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Direct inguinal hernia
Explanation:The patient is showing the symptoms of a hernia. The position of the hernia indicates an inguinal hernia. The absence of expansive impulse on cough by blocking the internal ring signifies a direct inguinal hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Men's Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates.
She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity.
The following results are obtained:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.2
2 14.2
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, was admitted with a history of fever for the past 2 weeks. On investigation, his echocardiography revealed a small vegetation around the mitral valve. His blood culture was positive for Streptococcus viridans. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?
Your Answer: IV benzylpenicillin
Explanation:According to the American Heart Association (AHA) penicillin-susceptible S viridans, S bovis, and other streptococci (MIC of penicillin of ≤0.1 mcg/mL) should be treated with penicillin G or ceftriaxone or penicillin G + a gentamicin combination or vancomycin (if allergy to penicillin).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma infection
Explanation:Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.
AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.
1. Warm AIHA:
In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.2. Cold AIHA:
The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride.
The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?Your Answer: Testosterone
Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone
Explanation:Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
Finasteride is a 5?-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.
Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Men's Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 76-year-old woman is admitted with a productive cough and pyrexia. Chest x-ray shows a pneumonia and she is commenced on intravenous ceftriaxone. Following admission a stool sample is sent because of diarrhoea. This confirms the suspected diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea and a 10-day course of oral metronidazole is started. After 10 days her diarrhoea is ongoing but she remains clinically stable. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Oral vancomycin for 14 days
Explanation:When a patient fails treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl) treatment, the next course of action is to change to oral vancomycin, which is shown to be effective in the treatment of c diff colitis. Oral rifampicin is not a treatment for c diff. Oral metronidazole is not resolving her symptoms so is not the correct answer. clindamycin is a cause of c diff colitis, not a treatment. IV Vanc is not active in the gut so is not the treatment; oral is active in the gut.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 34 year male is brought to the emergency by the paramedics who found him unconscious after being hit by a car. However, he regained consciousness and began talking. While waiting for the doctor's review, he suddenly becomes comatose and the condition deteriorates. What will be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: SAH
Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage
Explanation:Extradural haemorrhage occurs as a result of head trauma and subsequent acute haemorrhage, primarily from the middle meningeal artery between the skull and the dura mater. Typical symptoms are due to compression of the brain and appear after a lucid interval that follows an initial loss of consciousness. Increased intracranial pressure leads to a decline in mental status and anisocoria, in which the ipsilateral pupil is dilated. Diagnosis is confirmed by CT (biconvex, hyperdense, sharply demarcated mass). Emergency treatment is necessary and involves neurosurgical opening of the skull and hematoma evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 20-year-old boy returning from vacation in India presented with a history of fever, myalgia, headache and abdominal pain for 4 days duration. He revealed that he had bathed in a river during his vacation. On examination, he had severe muscle tenderness, hypotension (BP - 80/60 mmHg) and tachycardia (140 bpm). What would be the first step in management?
Your Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:The history is suggestive of leptospirosis. This is a zoonotic infection caused by a spirochete. As the patient is in shock, resuscitation with IV fluids is the first step in the management. IV antibiotics should be started (Doxycycline or Penicillin) as soon as possible. Other investigations mentioned are important during the management to rule out other possible diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Correct
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In last 5 days, an old man has complained of severe left sided headache, which was aggravated by bright lights. He has not vomited but feels nauseated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Migraine
Explanation:Migraine without aura have the following characteristics: Nausea and vomiting accompanied by >5 headaches that last for 4-72 hours, plus any unilateral, pulsating headache or are aggravated by routine daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 55-year-old man develops central abdominal pain a few hours after having an Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) performed. Investigations reveal the following:
Amylase 545 u/dl
Erect chest x-ray Normal heart and lungs. No free air noted
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Intravenous fluids + analgesia
Explanation:A very common complication after ERCP is post-ERCP pancreatitis, which based on the clinical scenario , this man has. The treatment for this is pain control, lots of intravenous fluids, and traditionally bowel rest, although more recent evidence suggests early feeding is better.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary System
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Question 17
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age.
On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone; however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors.
The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 18
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted to the hospital with headache, visual disturbances, pale conjunctivae, and breathlessness. While in the assessment unit, he has had an episode of nosebleed that has been difficult to control. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm, blood pressure is 115/65 mmHg, and he is febrile with a temperature of 37°C. Fundoscopy shows dilated retinal veins with a retinal haemorrhage in the right eye.
What is the most appropriate next step of management?Your Answer: Plasmapheresis
Explanation:The patient is displaying signs and symptoms of hyperviscosity syndrome, secondary to the Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia. Treatment of choice is plasmapheresis.
Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant?
Your Answer: Type II pneumocyte
Explanation:Type I pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) exchange that takes place in the alveoli. It is a very thin cell stretched over a very large area. This type of cell is susceptible to a large number of toxic insults and cannot replicate itself.
Type II pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the production and secretion of surfactant (the molecule that reduces the surface tension of pulmonary fluids and contributes to the elastic properties of the lungs). The type 2 pneumocyte is a smaller cell that can replicate in the alveoli and will replicate to replace damaged type 1 pneumocytes. Alveolar macrophages are the primary phagocytes of the innate immune system, clearing the air spaces of infectious, toxic, or allergic particles that have evaded the mechanical defences of the respiratory tract, such as the nasal passages, the glottis, and the mucociliary transport system. The main role of goblet cells is to secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membranes where they are found. Goblet cells accomplish this by secreting mucins, large glycoproteins formed mostly by carbohydrates. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 42-year-old previously well woman presented with acute severe central chest pain for the past 2 hours. She has a family history of premature coronary artery disease. Her husband passed away recently due to prostate cancer. On examination her blood pressure was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 80 bpm. Her ECG showed ST segment elevation and her troponin was slightly elevated. Emergency angiogram revealed slight wall irregularities with no luminal obstruction. Cardiovascular MR showed an apical ballooning of the myocardium resembling an octopus pot. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the ST segment elevation?
Your Answer: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Causes for ST segment elevation other than myocardial infarction
Natural variants
-Early repolarization
-Left ventricular hypertrophy and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
-Left bundle branch block
Artefacts
-Leads mispositioning
-Electrical cardioversion
Cardiovascular diseases
-Pericarditis/ Myocarditis
-Aortic dissection
-Prinzmetal’s angina
-Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy
-Brugada Syndrome and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy/dysplasia
Pulmonary diseases
-Pulmonary thromboembolism
-Pneumothorax
-Atelectasis and pulmonary metastases
Gastrointestinal diseases
-Acute pancreatitis
-Acute cholecystitis
Other conditions
-Hyperkalaemia
-Drug induced ST segment elevation (e.g. – clozapine)
-Haemorrhagic cerebrovascular diseaseCoronary artery disease and myocardial infarction can be excluded with a negative angiogram and a slightly elevated troponin. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can be excluded with cardiovascular MR findings. Left ventricular aneurysm usually occurs following a myocardial infarction, but there is no positive history for that. The characteristic findings on cardiovascular MR confirms the diagnosis of Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female presents to the ER with a respiratory infection for which the physician prescribes her azithromycin. She, however, is currently on combined oral contraceptive pills. Regarding her contraception, what should be advised to this patient?
Your Answer: Using 7d condoms after antibiotics
Correct Answer: No extra precaution
Explanation:Rifampicin is the only antibiotic that has been reported to reduce plasma oestrogen concentrations. When taking Rifampicin, oral contraceptives cannot be relied upon and a second method of contraception is mandatory. Amoxicillin, ampicillin, griseofulvin, metronidazole and tetracycline have been rarely associated with contraceptive failure. When these agents are used, the clinician should discuss the available data with the patient and suggest a second form of birth control. Other antibiotics are most likely safe to use concomitantly with oral contraceptives.
The danger with COCP is enzyme inducers which can lower the levels of the hormone in he blood, azithromycin is not an enzyme inducer. No additional precautions are required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with combined hormonal methods for durations of 3 weeks or less. The only proviso would be that if the antibiotics (and/or the illness) caused vomiting or diarrhoea, then the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.Inducers: RASAG
– Rifampicin
– Anticonvulsants, particularly phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbitone and primidone
– Spironolactone, St Johns wort
– Alcohol, long term
– Griseofulvin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Women's Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 37-year-old male fell whilst walking home and landed on his outstretched hand. He is now complaining of pain in his right arm. X-rays were conducted and indicate a fracture of the radial head. Choose the most commonly associated nerve injury from the list of options.
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:There will be a radial nerve injury due to finger drop with both sensation intact and a normal wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient presents with a non-explosive cough, muscle twitching on the level of the tongue and aspiration pneumonia. He also claims that occasionally the food he swallows comes back through his nose. What is the most likely cause of dysphagia in this case?
Your Answer: Pseudobulbar palsy
Correct Answer: Bulbar palsy
Explanation:Bulbar palsy and pseudobulbar palsy are rare types of a motor neuron disease that affect the cranial motor nerves. Bulbar palsy is a lower motor neuron palsy that affects the nuclei of the 9th to 12th cranial nerves. Pseudobulbar palsy is an upper motor neuron palsy that affects the corticobulbar tracts of the 5th, 7th and 9th to 12th cranial nerves. Any condition which disrupts or damages the cranial nerve nuclei or corticobulbar tracts can cause bulbar or pseudobulbar palsy (e.g., stroke, multiple sclerosis, infections, brain stem tumours). Both bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy are seen mainly in men over 75 years old and present with progressive dysarthria and dysphagia. In addition, patients with pseudobulbar palsy present with a lack of facial expression, difficulty chewing, and emotional lability. Lower motor neuron signs (atrophy and fasciculations of the tongue, absent gag reflex) differentiate bulbar palsy from pseudobulbar palsy, which presents with upper motor neuron signs (spastic tongue, exaggerated gag, and jaw jerk reflexes). Diagnosis is mainly clinical and treatment mostly supportive with a poor prognosis. Life expectancy is around 1-3 years following diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old primigravida in her 37th week of pregnancy was admitted for the management of pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure was 180/110 mmHg and urine protein was +++. Magnesium sulphate was started. Which of the following are important parameters that should be monitored during the administration of magnesium sulphate?
Your Answer: Reflexes + respiratory rate
Explanation:The clinical effect and toxicity of MgSO4 can be linked to its concentration in plasma. A concentration of 1.8 to 3.0 mmol/L has been suggested for treatment of eclamptic convulsions. Maternal toxicity is rare when MgSO4 is carefully administered and monitored. The first warning of impending toxicity in the mother is loss of the patellar reflex at plasma concentrations between 3.5 and 5 mmol/L. Respiratory paralysis occurs at 5 to 6.5 mmol/L. Cardiac conduction is altered at greater than 7.5 mmol/L, and cardiac arrest can be expected when concentrations of magnesium exceed 12.5 mmol/L. Careful attention to the monitoring guidelines can prevent toxicity. Deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, urine output and serum concentrations are the most commonly monitored parameters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Correct
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A 72-year-old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension for 15 years, presented with gradual onset difficulty in breathing on exertion and bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 months. On examination he had mild ankle oedema. His JVP was not elevated. His heart sounds were normal but he had bibasal crepitations on auscultation. Which of the following clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure in this patient?
Your Answer: Third heart sound
Explanation:The presence of a third heart sound is the most sensitive indicator of heart failure. All of the other signs can be found in heart failure with varying degrees.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Correct
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A 74-year-old man presents with a history of falls and enuresis. Recently his behaviour has been bizarre but the falling has persisted for the last 12 months. Upon examination he's found to be disorientated for time and place. His gait is clumsy and broad-based. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation:The patient has a history of:
1 – Balance and gait disturbance – falls and broad based clumsy gait
2 – Dementia – strange behaviour and disorientation to time and place
3 – Urinary incontinence – episodes of enuresis.
All of the symptoms constitute the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection.
On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion.
Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?Your Answer: Dyspnoea normally improves on commencement of infusion
Correct Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use
Explanation:The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent attacks of Meniere's disease?
Your Answer: Betahistine
Explanation:Betahistine is a histamine analogue that has been the mainstay treatment drug for Meniere’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 39 year-old engineer presents with progressive weakness of his hands. Upon examination, you notice wasting of the small muscles of the hand. A diagnosis of syringomyelia is suspected. Which one of the following features would most support this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Loss of temperature sensation in the hands
Explanation:Syringomyelia is a development of a cavity (syrinx) within the spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include loss of feeling, paralysis, weakness, and stiffness in the back, shoulders, and extremities. Syringomyelia may also cause a loss of the ability to feel extremes of hot or cold, especially in the hands. Symptoms typically vary depending on the extent and, often more critically, on the location of the syrinx within the spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presented following an insect bite she complained of itching at the site of bite. What is the most appropriate management can be done at this stage?
Your Answer: Oral antihistamine
Explanation:Itching is due to release of histamine locally as a reaction to insect bites. Oral antihistamines are adequate as she doesn’t have other systemic features of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune System
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Question 31
Correct
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A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?
Your Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis
Explanation:Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 32
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presented with complaints of anxiety, tremors, sweating, tachycardia and weight loss despite increased appetite. Which of the following pathogenesis is responsible for such symptoms?
Your Answer: Increased metabolic rate
Explanation:These symptoms are suggestive of thyrotoxicosis. In this disease, the basal metabolic rate of the patients is increased due to excessive thyroid hormones in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 33
Correct
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A 31-year-old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows:
Anti Jo-1: positive
ANA: positive
CK: 2000 U/L
ESR: 60mm/hr
EMG: myopathic changes
Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?Your Answer: Interstitial lung disease
Explanation:Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by?
Your Answer: An adenovirus
Correct Answer: A coronavirus
Explanation:Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 35
Correct
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A 48-year-old hairdresser presented to her GP complaining of tingling in the right palm and right wrist pain. She had intermittently experienced these symptoms; however, recently they had been keeping her awake all night. She had noticed a reduction in grip and was struggling to work at the salon. Otherwise, she felt well in herself and had not noticed any weakness in the other hand or lower limb. Her weight was stable, and she denied any neck problems or swallowing difficulties. She had a past medical history of hypothyroidism and hypertension and took regular thyroxine, Bendroflumethiazide and ibuprofen. She was a non-smoker and rarely drank alcohol. On examination, she appeared alert and oriented. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full.
On examination of the upper limb, there was wasting over the right thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the right index finger. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger in the right hand. Nerve conduction studies showed absent sensory action potential in right median palmar branches and denervation of the right abductor pollicis brevis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Median nerve palsy
Explanation:The history is consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) arising as a result of pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. The median nerve supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence: the abductor pollicis (C7, C8), flexor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis, and the lateral two lumbricals. The nerve conduction studies confirm marked denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 36
Correct
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A 42-year-old man with a 6 month history of progressive weakness of both lower limbs, complains of lethargy and of difficulties climbing stairs. He also claims he's experienced muscle loss in his lower limbs. History reveals type 2 diabetes mellitus and heavy alcohol use for the last 4 years. Clinical examination reveals marked loss of fine touch and proprioception. The distribution is in a stocking manner and bilateral. However, no evidence of ataxia is present. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dry beriberi
Explanation:Hypovitaminosis B1, consistent with dry beriberi is crucially a treatable condition, although sometimes with incomplete recovery, but it is probably under-recognized yet increasingly common given increasing levels of alcohol abuse in the western world. Dry beriberi or ‘acute nutritional polyneuropathy’ is considered to be rare in the western world. Rapid deterioration can occur, typically with weakness, paraesthesia and neuropathic pain. Striking motor nerve involvement can occur, mimicking Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). In the context of increasing alcohol abuse in the western world, it is possible that alcoholic neuropathy associated with abrupt deterioration due to concomitant nutritional hypovitaminosis B1 may be seen increasingly often.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with postnatal depression and refuses treatment. Which form of consent should be obtained in order to treat this patient?
Your Answer: Consent from court of law
Correct Answer: No consent required
Explanation:The patient is in an altered psychological state; thus, no verbal nor a written consent is required from her. Consent from the carer or the court of law can be obtained but this will require some time while a prompt action is needed in this case and the carer is also unable to make a decision on the behalf of the patient. Therefore, the doctor should act without consent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethical & Legal
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Question 38
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made.
What is the most important next step in management?Your Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU
Explanation:Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
– Supportive measures
If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
– Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
– Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
– Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
– Antiadrenergic drugs.
– Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
– Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
– Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
– Treat the underlying condition. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is walking. She is examined and is found to have pyramidal weakness of her left lower leg. She also has reduced pain and temperature sensation on her right leg and right side of her torso up to the umbilicus. Her joint position sense is also impaired in her left big toe but is found to be normal elsewhere. She has definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Where is the lesion?
Your Answer: Midline mid-thoracic cord
Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:In Brown-Sequard syndrome, there is paralysis and loss of proprioception, which occurs on the same (ipsilateral) side of the body, as the lesion. Loss of pain and temperature sensation, therefore, occurs on the opposite (contralateral) side of the body as the lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 40
Correct
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A 28-year-old male complained of an annular rash following an insect bite he received during a hiking trip. Which of the following is the drug of choice?
Your Answer: Doxycycline PO
Explanation:The described rash is the typical rash of erythema migrans of Lyme disease, which is treated by doxycycline PO
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 41
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2-3 white blood cells/mm3.
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What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old gentleman undergoes a temporal lobectomy after the discovery of a brain tumour. Which one of the following consequences would be least likely to develop?
Your Answer: Auditory agnosia
Correct Answer: Astereognosis
Explanation:Astereognosis is associated with lesions to the parietal lobe, not the temporal lobe, so this symptom would not arise in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 43
Correct
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A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years complains of drooling of saliva and sudden difficulty in swallowing while eating. She is a known hypertensive on treatment. What would be your next step?
Your Answer: Endoscopy
Explanation:Dysphagia or difficulty in swallowing. Endoscopy allows for visual examination of the oesophagus and is indicated in patients with dysphagia to determine the underlying aetiology, exclude malignant and premalignant conditions, assess the need for therapy, and perform therapy including dilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 44
Correct
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The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is
Your Answer: IgG
Explanation:Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune System
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Question 45
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg.
She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 350 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (355 mOsm/kg).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary polydipsia
Explanation:In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 46
Correct
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A 45-year-old male was discharged recently after treatment of bleeding peptic ulcers. 3 days after discharge he was readmitted complaining of acute severe chest pain for the past 1 hour. His ECG showed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. His FBC, blood urea, serum electrolytes and serum creatinine were within normal ranges. Faecal occult blood was negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Primary angioplasty
Explanation:The patient has a recent history of bleeding peptic ulcer disease, which is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis. So he should be offered primary angioplasty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 47
Correct
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A female patient presents with pain upon inspiration and dyspnoea. She had a myocardial infarction four days ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Although viral infection is the most common identifiable cause of acute pericarditis, the condition may be associated with many diseases. Non-viral causes of pericarditis include bacterial infection, MI, chest trauma, and neoplasm. Post-MI pericarditis may develop two to four days after an acute infarction and results from a reaction between the pericardium and the damaged adjacent myocardium. Dressler’s syndrome is a post-MI phenomenon in which pericarditis develops weeks to months after an acute infarction; this syndrome is thought to reflect a late autoimmune reaction mediated by antibodies to circulating myocardial antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female was admitted to the emergency department with a moderate fever and productive cough. She commonly experiences central chest pain and regurgitation of undigested food particles. She did not suffer from acid reflux. Solid and liquid diet have both been affected for the last 4 months. A CXR showed an air-fluid level behind a normal sized heart. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hiatus hernia
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:The diagnosis is aspiration pneumonia due to the retained food in the oesophagus. This is the case with achalasia. There is no acid reflux in this disease. An air fluid level behind the heart also favours achalasia. In hiatus hernia, GORD is usually present with nausea and vomiting. In the case of a pharyngeal pouch being present, halitosis would be evident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 49
Correct
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A 27-year-old man with a long history of heavy alcohol intake is admitted with nausea and frequent vomiting four hours after a meal in a restaurant. During review in the Emergency department he vomits a cupful of blood.
What is the cause of his haematemesis?Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Explanation:This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. Because of the history, that makes this more likely than haemorrhagic gastritis, duodenal ulceration, or oesophagitis (also oesophagitis would not bleed a cupful). Oesophageal varices would present with copious amounts of hematemesis and most likely hemodynamic instability as a result of the amount of blood loss. In Mallory-Weiss tear they are typically presented as a hemodynamically stable patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 50
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years.
Investigations reveal:
Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110)
Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4)
Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?Your Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D
Explanation:This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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