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  • Question 1 - Regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: There is increased activity of thrombin.

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis results in widespread platelet aggregation.

      Explanation:

      DIC is characterised by a widespread inappropriate intravascular deposition of fibrin with consumption of coagulation factors and platelets. This may occur as a consequence of many disorders that release procoagulant material into the circulation or cause widespread endothelial damage or platelet aggregation. Increased activity of thrombin in the circulation overwhelms its normal rate of removal by natural anticoagulants. In addition to causing increased deposition of fibrin in the microcirculation and widespread platelet aggregation to the vessels, intravascular thrombin formation interferes with fibrin polymerisation. Intense fibrinolysis is stimulated by thrombi on vascular walls and the release of fibrin degradation products again interferes with fibrin polymerisation. The combined action of thrombin and plasmin causes depletion of fibrinogen and all coagulation factors, compounded by thrombocytopaenia caused by platelet consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Aplastic crises in sickle cell anaemia is classically precipitated by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Aplastic crises in sickle cell anaemia is classically precipitated by which of the following infections:

      Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      A serious complication in sickle cell disease (SCD) is the aplastic crisis. This may be caused by infection with Parvovirus B-19 (B19V). This virus causes fifth disease, a normally benign childhood disorder associated with fever, malaise, and a mild rash. This virus infects RBC progenitors in bone marrow, resulting in impaired cell division for a few days.
      Healthy people experience, at most, a slight drop in hematocrit, since the half-life of normal erythrocytes in the circulation is 40-60 days. In people with SCD, however, the RBC lifespan is greatly shortened (usually 10-20 days), and a very rapid drop in Hb occurs. The condition is self-limited, with bone marrow recovery occurring in 7-10 days, followed by brisk reticulocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The least likely feature of anaemia is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The least likely feature of anaemia is:

      Your Answer: Bounding pulse

      Correct Answer: Narrow pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Non-specific signs of anaemia include:
      1. pallor of mucous membranes or nail beds (if Hb < 90 g/L),
      2. tachycardia
      3. bounding pulse
      4. wide pulse pressure
      5. flow murmurs
      6. cardiomegaly
      7. signs of congestive cardiac failure (in severe cases)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - How does aspirin mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Correct

    • How does aspirin mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase and blocks the platelet production of thromboxane A2 (TXA2), thus inhibiting platelet aggregation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding myeloma, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding myeloma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The paraprotein in myeloma is usually IgM.

      Correct Answer: Myeloma is associated with marked rouleaux formation on blood film.

      Explanation:

      98% of cases of myeloma occur over the age of 40 years with a peak incidence between 65 and 70 years. The disease is twice as common in black individuals compared to those of white or Asian origin. Laboratory findings include presence of a paraprotein in serum/urine (the paraprotein is IgG in 60% of cases, IgA in 20% and light chain only in almost all the rest) and marked Rouleaux formation on blood film. There is no cure for myeloma. The overall median survival is now 7-10 years and in younger (less than 50 years) patients it can be over 10 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the...

    Correct

    • Detection of urinary Bence-Jones protein would be most suggestive of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Bence Jones proteins are monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains found in urine (and plasma) of some patients with myeloma. Because of their relatively small size, light chains are readily excreted into the urine. The presence of significant amounts of Bence Jones proteins in urine is indicative of malignant B cell proliferation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency is associated with koilonychia and atrophic glossitis.

      Correct Answer: Dietary insufficiency is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men and postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of hyposplenism arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of hyposplenism arrives at the Emergency Department sick and feverish. A complete set of bloods, including a peripheral blood film, is organised.

      On a hyposplenic blood film, which of the following features is LEAST likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: Teardrop cells

      Explanation:

      The collection of abnormalities found in these patients is referred to as a hyposplenic film.
      The following features can be seen on hyposplenic blood films:
      Howell-Jolly bodies
      Heinz’s bodies
      Target cells
      RBCs with nuclei on occasion
      Lymphocytosis
      Macrocytosis
      Acanthocytes
      Teardrop cells, also known as dacrocytes, are named for their teardrop-shaped shape.

      Dacrocytosis is a condition in which a large number of these cells are present. Myelofibrosis and beta thalassemia major both have dacrocytes, but hyposplenism does not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. There is a secondary rise after the age of 40 years. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage and have an equal sex incidence; there is a male predominance for the 15% of T-cell lineage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are asked to review the blood results on a 56-year-old man who...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review the blood results on a 56-year-old man who appears to be acutely unwell. His results show that he is neutropenic.
      Which ONE of the following is NOT a recognized cause of a neutropenia?

      Your Answer: Hyposplenism

      Explanation:

      Neutropenia is defined as a total neutrophil count of < 2.0 x 109/l.
      It can be caused by:
      Viral infections
      Collagen disease e.g. SLE and RA
      Chemotherapy and radiotherapy
      Hypersplenism
      Marrow infiltration
      Vitamin and folate deficiency
      Drug reactions
      Drugs that cause neutropenia include flecainide, phenytoin, carbimazole, indomethacin and co-trimoxazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases is caused by a build-up of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a clonal (malignant) bone marrow disorder in which early lymphoid precursors multiply and replace the marrow’s normal hematopoietic cells. ALL is most common between the ages of 3 and 7, with 75 percent of cases occurring before the age of 6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies: ...

    Correct

    • Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Chronic myeloid leukaemia is most common in middle-aged and elderly people. It is...

    Incorrect

    • Chronic myeloid leukaemia is most common in middle-aged and elderly people. It is responsible for 20% of all leukemias.

      Which of the following statements about CML is NOT TRUE?

      Your Answer: Around 90% of cases have the Philadelphia chromosome

      Correct Answer: Serum B12 is typically low

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia is most common in middle-aged and elderly people. It is responsible for 20% of all leukemias. The majority of CML patients experience fatigue, weight loss, and excessive sweating.

      The Philadelphia chromosome is found in over 90% of CML cases. A balanced translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 is known as the Philadelphia chromosome.

      Because white cells produce a B12 binding protein, serum B12 levels in CML are typically high.

      In CML, the neutrophil alkaline phosphatase score is usually low.

      Almost all patients with CML eventually progress to blast crisis, though this can take up to ten years. If any of the following features are present in a CML patient, a blast crisis is diagnosed:
      In the blood or bone marrow, there are more than 20% myeloblasts or lymphoblasts.
      On a bone marrow biopsy, large clusters of blasts were discovered.

      CML can be treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib and dasatinib if a chloroma (a solid tumour made up of myeloblasts that grows outside of the bone marrow) is present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly...

    Incorrect

    • Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly is observed during the examination.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Explanation:

      CML is a myeloproliferative disorder characterised by an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. A cytogenetic abnormality known as the Philadelphia chromosome, which results from a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, causes more than 80% of cases of CML.

      CML is a disease that develops slowly over several years. This is known as the ‘chronic stage.’ This stage is usually asymptomatic, and 90 percent of patients are diagnosed at this point, with the disease being discovered frequently as a result of a routine blood test. During this stage, the bone marrow contains less than 10% immature white cells (blasts).

      When CML cells expand, symptoms typically begin to appear. The ‘accelerated stage’ is what it’s called. Approximately 10% of people are diagnosed at this point. During this stage, between 10% and 30% of blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts. During this stage, common clinical features include:
      Fatigue and exhaustion
      Night sweats and fever
      Distension of the abdomen
      Pain in the left upper quadrant (splenic infarction)
      Splenomegaly (commonest examination finding)
      Hepatomegaly
      Bruising is simple.
      Gout is a type of arthritis that affects (rapid cell turnover)
      Hyperviscosity is a condition in which the viscosity of (CVA, priapism)
      A small percentage of patients experience a ‘blast crisis’ (blast stage). More than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells at this stage. Patients with severe constitutional symptoms (fever, weight loss, bone pain), infections, and bleeding diathesis typically present at this stage.

      In CML, laboratory findings include:
      White cell count is abnormally high (often greater than 100 x 109/l).
      Increased number of immature leukocytes causes a left shift.
      Anaemia that is mild to moderately normochromic and normocytic.
      Platelets can be low, normal, or elevated, and the Philadelphia chromosome can be found in > 80% of patients.
      Serum uric acid and ALP levels are frequently elevated.
      Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), such as imatinib and dasatinib, are the current mainstay of CML treatment.
      Allogenic bone marrow transplantation is now only used in cases where TKIs have failed to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man suffered a severe road traffic accident and has been brought...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man suffered a severe road traffic accident and has been brought to the hospital. As part of his treatment, he requires a blood transfusion and experiences a transfusion reaction.

      The most common type of transfusion reaction is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      During or shortly after transfusion, febrile transfusion reactions, also known as non-haemolytic transfusion reactions, present with an unexpected temperature rise (38oC or 1oC above baseline, if baseline is 37oC). This is usually a one-off occurrence. The fever is sometimes accompanied by chills.

      The most common type of transfusion reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which occur in about 1 in every 8 transfusions.

      The most common event leading to symptoms of febrile transfusion reactions is cytokine accumulation during storage of cellular components (especially platelet units). White cells secrete cytokines, and pre-storage leucodepletion has reduced this risk.

      Recipient antibodies (raised as a result of previous transfusions or pregnancies) reacting to donor human leukocyte antigen (HLA) or other antigens can also cause febrile transfusion reactions. Donor lymphocytes, granulocytes, and platelets all contain these antigens.

      Treatment is reassuring. Other causes should be ruled out, and antipyretics like paracetamol can help with fever relief. If another cause of fever is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped; however, if other causes of fever have been ruled out, it can be restarted at a slower rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: ALL is the most common malignancy of childhood.

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage. Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. The total white cell count may be decreased, normal or increased. The blood film typically shows a variable number of blast cells. The bone marrow is hypercellular with >20% blast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding folate requirements, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding folate requirements, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Dietary folate is found particularly in leafy green vegetables and liver.

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anemia results from inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. When DNA synthesis is impaired, the cell cycle cannot progress from the growth stage to the mitosis stage. This leads to continuing cell growth without division, which presents as macrocytosis, with an increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV). The defect in red cell DNA synthesis is most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency.
      Folate is an essential vitamin found in most foods, especially liver, green vegetables and yeast. The normal daily diet contains 200 – 250 μg, of which about 50% is absorbed. Daily adult requirements are about 100 μg. Absorption of folate is principally from the duodenum and jejunum. Stores of folate are normally only adequate for 4 months and so features of deficiency may be apparent after this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a heavy nosebleed. His...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a heavy nosebleed. His medical record shows that he was diagnosed with Haemophilia B as a child.

      What is the mode of inheritance of this disease?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of Factor IX causes Haemophilia B, and like the other Haemophilia’s, it has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, affecting males born to carrier mothers.

      Haemophilia B is the second commonest form of haemophilia and is rarer than haemophilia A. Haemophilia B is similar to haemophilia A but is less severe. You can distinguish the two disorders by specific coagulation factor assays.

      The incidence of Haemophilia B is one-fifth of that of haemophilia A.

      In laboratory findings, you get prolonged APTT, normal PT and low factor IX for Haemophilia B.

      There is also a variation called Leyden, in which factor IX levels are below 1% until puberty, when they rise, potentially reaching as high as 40-60% of normal. This is thought to be due to the effects of testosterone at puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: AML is classically associated with the Philadelphia chromosome.

      Correct Answer: AML becomes increasingly common with age.

      Explanation:

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the most common form of acute leukaemia in adults and becomes increasingly common with age, with a median onset of 65 years. It forms only a minor fraction (10 – 15%) of childhood leukaemia. The clinical features of AML typically presents with clinical features secondary to leukaemic infiltration of bone marrow and extramedullary sites:
      Anaemia (lethargy, pallor and breathlessness)
      Thrombocytopaenia (petechiae, bruising, epistaxis, haemorrhage) – often profound
      Neutropenia (infections)
      Hepatosplenomegaly
      Gingival infiltration
      Central nervous system involvement in AML is uncommon.
      Leukaemia cutis is the infiltration of neoplastic leukocytes in the skin. It occurs in approximately 10% of patients with AML.Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. The total white cell count is usually increased and blood film examination typically shows a variable number of blast cells. The bone marrow is hypercellular and typically contains many blast cells.. The prognosis for patients with AML has been improving steadily, particularly for those under 60 years of age, and approximately one-third of patients of this group can expect to achieve long-term cure. For the elderly, the situation is poor and less than 10% of those over 70 years of age achieve long-term remission.
      CML is commonly associated with the Philadelphia chromosome. The Philadelphia chromosome is present in only 1% of adults AML cases.
      Lymphadenopathy is rare in AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular haemolytic anaemia:

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of haemolytic anaemia include:
      Anaemia
      Jaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)
      Pigment gallstones
      Splenomegaly
      Ankle ulcers
      Expansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia major
      Aplastic crisis caused by parvovirus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The blood test reports of a 56-year-old female are sent for your review....

    Correct

    • The blood test reports of a 56-year-old female are sent for your review. She seems acutely sick and has had multiple infections over the past few months. Her complete blood count report shows neutropenia.

      Which one of the following options is true with regards to neutropenia?

      Your Answer: It can be caused by both radiotherapy and chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      A total neutrophil count of less than 2 x 109/L is defined as neutropenia. It can be caused by the following:
      1. viral infections
      2. SLE
      3. RA
      4. hypersplenism
      5. chemo- and radiotherapy
      6. vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
      7. drug reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she had done for non-specific malaise, lethargy, and weight loss.

      The only abnormality discovered during the blood tests was a 580 x 10 9 /l increase in platelets. Her platelets were also elevated on a blood test taken 6 months earlier, according to her previous results. You're aware of the recent emergence of elevated platelet levels as a cancer risk marker and decide to look into it.

      Which of the following cancers is most likely to cause isolated thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Raised platelet levels have emerged as a cancer risk marker, according to a large population-based study published in 2017(link is external). According to the study, 12 percent of men and 6% of women with thrombocytosis were diagnosed with cancer within a year. These figures increased to 18% in men and 10% in women if a second platelet count was taken within 6 months of the first and showed an increased or stable elevated platelet count.

      The researchers discovered that thrombocytosis linked to cancer is most common in colorectal and lung cancers, and it is linked to a worse prognosis. Furthermore, one-third of the cancer patients in the study had no other symptoms that would have prompted an immediate cancer referral.

      The exact mechanism by which these cancers cause thrombocytosis is unknown, but one theory proposes the existence of pathogenic feedback loops between malignant cells and platelets, with a reciprocal interaction between tumour growth and metastasis, as well as thrombocytosis and platelet activation. Another hypothesis is that thrombocytosis occurs independently of cancer but aids in its spread and progression.

      The findings show that routinely testing for thrombocytosis could cut the time it takes to diagnose colorectal and lung cancer by at least two months. In the UK, this could result in around 5500 earlier cancer diagnoses per year.

      Because the positive predictive value of thrombocytosis in middle age for cancer (10%) is higher than the positive predictive value for a woman in her 50s presenting with a new breast lump (8.5%), this is clearly an important research paper that should be used to adjust future clinical practise. The current NICE guidelines predate these new research findings, so we’ll have to wait and see how they affect cancer referral guidelines in the UK.

      Because there are so many possible cancers associated with thrombocytosis, the treating clinician should take a thorough history and perform a thorough clinical examination if a patient is diagnosed with it. Further investigation and the most appropriate referral route should be aided by this information.

      It’s worth noting that the patients in the study had their blood tests done for a medical reason rather than as a random screening test.

      If there are no other symptoms to guide investigation and referral (one-third of the patients in the study had no other symptoms), keep in mind that the two most common cancers encountered were colorectal and lung cancer, so a chest X-ray and a faecal immunochemical test (FIT) for faecal blood may be reasonable initial investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife with the complaint of increasing confusion and disorientation over the past three days, along with decreased urination. She reports that he has been complaining of increasing pain in his back and ribs over the past three months.

      On examination, the patient looks anaemic, is not oriented in time, place and person and has tenderness on palpation of the lumbar spine and the 10th, 11th and 12th ribs.

      Blood tests show anaemia which is normocytic, normochromic, raised urea and creatinine and hypercalcemia.

      Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma is a clonal abnormality affecting plasma cells in which there is an overproduction of functionless immunoglobulins. The most common patient complaint is bone pain, especially in the back and ribs. Anaemia and renal failure are common, along with hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia may lead to an altered mental status, as in this case.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia occurs due to the overproduction of lymphocytes, usually B cells. CLL may present with an asymptomatic elevation of B cells. Patients are generally more than 50 years old and present with non-specific fatigue and weight loss symptoms.

      There is no history of alcohol abuse in this case. Furthermore, patients with a history of alcohol abuse may have signs of liver failure, which are not present here.

      Metastatic prostate cancer would most often cause lower backache as it metastasises first to the lumbar spine via the vertebral venous plexus.

      A patient with Vitamin B12 deficiency would have anaemia, megaloblastic, hypersegmented neutrophils, and signs of peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently...

    Correct

    • A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukaemia. The chief resident asks him to identify ONE feature that will most support acute leukaemia diagnosis in contrast to chronic leukaemia.

      Which one of the following options will he pick?

      Your Answer: The patient is a child

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is more common in children than chronic leukaemias, which generally occur in adults. Bone marrow failure occurs early on in the course of the disease in acute leukaemias, and there is the massive proliferation of undifferentiated cells with functioning cells being crowded out. Hepatosplenomegaly occurs in both acute and chronic forms of leukaemia and is not a differentiating feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of Sickle cell disease(SCD):
      Acute and chronic pain: The most common clinical manifestation of SCD is vaso-occlusive crisis; pain crises are the most distinguishing clinical feature of SCD
      Bone pain: Often seen in long bones of extremities, primarily due to bone marrow infarction
      Anaemia: Universally present, chronic, and haemolytic in nature
      Aplastic crisis: Serious complication due to infection with parvovirus B19 (B19V)
      Splenic sequestration: Characterized by the onset of life-threatening anaemia with rapid enlargement of the spleen and high reticulocyte count
      Infection: Organisms that pose the greatest danger include encapsulated respiratory bacteria, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae; adult infections are predominantly with gram-negative organisms, especially Salmonella
      Growth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, being underweight
      Hand-foot syndrome: This is a dactylitis presenting as bilateral painful and swollen hands and/or feet in children
      Acute chest syndrome: Young children present with chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnoea, leucocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates in the upper lobes; adults are usually afebrile, dyspnoeic with severe chest pain, with multilobar/lower lobe disease
      Pulmonary hypertension: Increasingly recognized as a serious complication of SCD
      Avascular necrosis of the femoral or humeral head: Due to vascular occlusion
      Central nervous system (CNS) involvement: Most severe manifestation is stroke
      Ophthalmologic involvement: Ptosis, retinal vascular changes, proliferative retinitis
      Cardiac involvement: Dilation of both ventricles and the left atrium
      Gastrointestinal involvement: Cholelithiasis is common in children; liver may become involved
      Genitourinary involvement: Kidneys lose concentrating capacity; priapism is a well-recognized complication of SCD
      Dermatologic involvement: Leg ulcers are a chronic painful problem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man with a history of chronic anaemia is transfused. He takes bisoprolol and furosemide for his cardiac failure, and his most recent BNP was 123 pmol/l. He developed shortness of breath and his pre-existing peripheral oedema became worse 5 hours after transfusion was commenced. His BP rises to 170/105 mmHg and a repeat measurement of his BNP is 192 pmol/l.

      What is the most likely transfusion reaction to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Correct Answer: TACO

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Typical clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.

      TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury) is a clinical syndrome with abrupt onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema within 6 hours of transfusion not explained by another risk factor. Associated with the presence of antibodies in the donor blood to recipient leukocyte antigens. patients present with dyspnoea, hypertension, hypotension, acute leukopenia.

      Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.

      Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of Hodgkin lymphoma: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of Hodgkin lymphoma:

      Your Answer: Neutrophilia

      Correct Answer: Basophilia

      Explanation:

      Features may include:Normochromic normocytic anaemia is most common; bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease, but if it occurs bone marrow failure may develop with leucoerythroblastic anaemiaOne-third of patients have a neutrophilia; eosinophilia is frequentAdvanced disease is associated with lymphopenia and loss of cell-mediated immunityPlatelet count is normal or increased in early disease and reduced in later stagesESR and CRP are usually raised (ESR is useful in monitoring disease progress)Serum LDH is raised initially in 30-40% of casesDiagnosis is made by histological examination of an excised lymph nodeThe distinctive multinucleate polypoid RS cell is central to the diagnosis of the four classic types of HL (95% of cases)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding acute idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding acute idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is usually idiopathic with no precipitating cause.

      Correct Answer: Over 80% of children recover without treatment.

      Explanation:

      Acute ITP is most common in children. In approximately 75% of cases, the episode follows vaccination or infection such as chicken pox or glandular fever. Most cases are caused by non-specific immune complex attachment to platelets. Acute ITP usually has a very sudden onset and the symptoms usually disappear in less than 6 months (often within a few weeks). It is usually a self-limiting condition and over 80% of children recover without treatment; in 5 – 10% of cases a chronic form of the disease develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent:

      Your Answer: V

      Explanation:

      Fat-soluble vitamin K is obtained from green vegetables and bacterial synthesis in the gut. Deficiency may present in the newborn (haemorrhagic disease of the newborn) or in later life. Deficiency may be caused by an inadequate diet, malabsorption or inhibition of vitamin K by drugs such as warfarin. The activity of factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K dependent as well as that of protein C and protein S. Both PT and APTT are prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of microcytic anaemia and of any anaemia worldwide is iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds

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Pathology (18/30) 60%
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