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  • Question 1 - The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain? ...

    Correct

    • The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain?

      Your Answer: Medulla and midbrain

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which cranial nerve travels through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone on...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve travels through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone on its way to the brain?

      Your Answer: Olfactory nerve

      Explanation:

      The olfactory nerves are responsible for the sense of smell. They originate in the upper part of the nose’s mucous membrane and travel through the ethmoid bone’s cribriform plate. From there, they reach the olfactory bulb, where nerve cells synapse and transmit the impulse to a second neuron. Finally, the nerves travel to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum, where the perception of smell occurs.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10972.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which feature is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which feature is not associated with Gerstmann's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Anosognosia

      Explanation:

      Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction is indicated by the presence of anosognosia.

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A chromosome that has a very short p arm, making it difficult to...

    Incorrect

    • A chromosome that has a very short p arm, making it difficult to observe, is known as:

      Your Answer: Acrocentric

      Correct Answer: Telocentric

      Explanation:

      Understanding Centromeres

      A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      16370.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which reflex involves the motor component of cranial nerve VII? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which reflex involves the motor component of cranial nerve VII?

      Your Answer: Gag reflex

      Correct Answer: Corneal reflex

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What substance do bodybuilders misuse in order to increase their overall body mass?...

    Incorrect

    • What substance do bodybuilders misuse in order to increase their overall body mass?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptives

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications

      Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.

      There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.

      Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.

      Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8910.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the half-life of a drug?

      Your Answer: For a drug to reach steady state it typically takes 10-15 half lives

      Correct Answer: In Zero order reactions the half-life decreases as the concentration falls

      Explanation:

      In contrast to first order reactions, drugs that exhibit zero order kinetics do not have a fixed half-life, as the rate of drug elimination remains constant regardless of the drug concentration in the plasma. The relationship between time and plasma concentration in zero order kinetics is linear, whereas in first order reactions, the half-life remains constant.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6347.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes and was prescribed medication. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes and was prescribed medication. He now presents with weight loss and increased thirst.
      Which investigation is most likely to help make the correct diagnosis of this weight loss and increased thirst?

      Your Answer: Lithium levels

      Correct Answer: Fasting glucose

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is important to note that the patient is experiencing weight loss, which is more commonly associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus of new onset type 2 diabetes mellitus. A fasting glucose test can aid in making a diagnosis and provide insight into the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      While abnormalities related to dehydration may be observed in U&Es, this investigation alone would not be sufficient for a diagnosis. LFTs and FBC may be useful as routine blood tests, but they would not provide an explanation for the patient’s clinical presentation.

      If the patient is taking lithium, measuring lithium levels could be helpful in identifying potential side effects such as increased thirst. However, lithium is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, so it may not be relevant in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?...

    Incorrect

    • The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?

      Your Answer: Tentorium cerebella

      Correct Answer: Tela choroidea

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What factor increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor increases the risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer: High serum iron levels

      Correct Answer: Having Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      The use of dopaminergic drugs in individuals with Parkinson’s disease increases their susceptibility to NMS. NMS is more likely to develop when there is a modification in the dosage of dopaminergic and antipsychotic medications. While it is possible, NMS does not typically arise without the administration of dopamine-affecting drugs.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a true statement about the cytochrome P450 system? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the cytochrome P450 system?

      Your Answer: CYP2D6 shows the largest phenotypic variation amongst the cytochromes

      Explanation:

      The liver plays a significant role in breaking down clozapine through the action of CYP450 enzymes, with CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6 being particularly involved in the process.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination?

      Your Answer: Cannot be changed at will

      Correct Answer: Occurs in inner subjective space

      Explanation:

      The distinguishing factors between the two are based on personal interpretation and tangible versus intangible concepts.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young girl who has had herpes encephalitis develops a severe carbohydrate craving...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl who has had herpes encephalitis develops a severe carbohydrate craving and weight gain. What would be your suspicion?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the primary focus of the serial sevens test, which is included...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary focus of the serial sevens test, which is included in the MMSE?

      Your Answer: Recall

      Correct Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      The main purpose of the ‘serial sevens’ is to evaluate an individual’s ability to focus and maintain attention. It also has a secondary function of assessing memory to some degree.

      Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE)

      The Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) was developed in 1975 by Folstein et al. Its original purpose was to differentiate between organic and functional disorders, but it is now mainly used to detect and track the progression of cognitive impairment. The exam is scored out of 30 and is divided into seven categories: orientation to place and time, registration, attention and concentration, recall, language, visual construction, and attention to written command. Each category has a possible score, and the total score can indicate the severity of cognitive impairment. A score equal to or greater than 27 indicates normal cognition, while scores below this can indicate severe, moderate, of mild cognitive impairment. The MMSE is a useful tool for detecting and tracking cognitive impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is linked to losing weight? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is linked to losing weight?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the options below does not diminish the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill when used together?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      It is safe to use sodium valproate together with the oral contraceptive pill. However, as valproate is known to cause birth defects, all women who use it and are of childbearing age must also use contraception.

      Interactions with Oral Contraceptives

      Psychiatric drugs such as St John’s Wort, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Topiramate, and Barbiturates can interact with oral contraceptives and lead to a reduced contraceptive effect. It is important to be aware of these potential interactions to ensure the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective depot antipsychotic for preventing psychotic relapse?

      Your Answer: Pipotiazine palmitate

      Correct Answer: Zuclopenthixol decanoate

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In Mahler's Separation-Individuation theory, during which developmental stage is object constancy typically attained?...

    Incorrect

    • In Mahler's Separation-Individuation theory, during which developmental stage is object constancy typically attained?

      Your Answer: 6-10 months

      Correct Answer: 24-36 months

      Explanation:

      Mahler’s Separation-Individuation theory of child development proposes that personality development occurs in distinct stages. The first stage, the Autistic phase, occurs during the first few weeks of life, where the child is mostly sleeping and cut off from the world. The second stage, the Symbiotic phase, lasts until around six months of age, where the child sees themselves and their mother as a single unit. The third stage, Separation-Individuation, has four subphases. The first subphase, Differentiation, occurs between six to ten months, where the child begins to see themselves as an individual and experiences separation anxiety. The second subphase, Practicing, occurs between ten to sixteen months, where the child explores connections with the external world and people other than the mother. The third subphase, Rapprochement, occurs between sixteen to twenty-four months, where the child struggles to balance their desire for independence and proximity to the mother, often resulting in tantrums and the use of transitional objects. The fourth subphase, Object constancy, occurs between twenty-four to thirty-six months, where the child accepts the idea of object constancy and is more comfortable with the mother being separate for periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the typical artery that is blocked in cases of Alexia without...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical artery that is blocked in cases of Alexia without agraphia?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the pattern of inheritance where female offspring of affected fathers do...

    Incorrect

    • What is the pattern of inheritance where female offspring of affected fathers do not exhibit symptoms of carry the genetic mutation?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Correct Answer: Y-linked

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns:

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions:
      – Can be transmitted from one generation to the next (vertical transmission) through all forms of transmission observed (male to male, male to female, female to female).
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Usually, one parent is an affected heterozygote and the other is an unaffected homozygote.
      – If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the mutated gene.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions:
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be affected.
      – Both parents are usually unaffected heterozygotes.
      – Two unaffected people who each carry one copy of the mutated gene have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a child affected by the disorder.

      X-linked Dominant Conditions:
      – Males and females are both affected, with males typically being more severely affected than females.
      – The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will all be unaffected.
      – A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected fetus.

      X-linked Recessive Conditions:
      – Males are more frequently affected than females.
      – Transmitted through carrier females to their sons (knights move pattern).
      – Affected males cannot pass the condition onto their sons.
      – A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers.

      Y-linked Conditions:
      – Every son of an affected father will be affected.
      – Female offspring of affected fathers are never affected.

      Mitochondrial Inheritance:
      – Mitochondria are inherited only in the maternal ova and not in sperm.
      – Males and females are affected, but always being maternally inherited.
      – An affected male does not pass on his mitochondria to his children, so all his children will be unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is not recommended as a treatment for dystonia caused...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not recommended as a treatment for dystonia caused by antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Switching to alternative antipsychotic

      Correct Answer: Tetrabenazine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A devoted mother has a son with autism. She spends every free moment...

    Incorrect

    • A devoted mother has a son with autism. She spends every free moment researching the latest treatments and therapies, as well as the underlying neurological causes of his condition.
      What defense mechanism is she exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Sublimation

      Correct Answer: Intellectualisation

      Explanation:

      Intellectualisation involves disregarding the emotional aspect of a situation, such as a daughter’s severe illness, by concentrating solely on factual information and particulars. This behaviour is classified as a neurotic defence mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following may be considered a leading question? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may be considered a leading question?

      Your Answer: Please can you tell me more about your mood?

      Correct Answer: Do you find your mood is worse in the morning?

      Explanation:

      It may be more effective to ask open-ended questions at the beginning of an interview to gather as much information as possible. Closed questions can be used later in the interview to clarify specific points. However, it is important to avoid leading questions that may influence the patient’s response. For example, instead of asking if the patient feels worse in the morning, a more open question such as Can you describe your mood throughout the day? may be more appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What element was included in the original concept of the alcohol dependence syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • What element was included in the original concept of the alcohol dependence syndrome by Edwards and Gross but is not present in the ICD-11 concept of the dependence syndrome?

      Your Answer: Salience of drink seeking behaviour

      Correct Answer: Rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence

      Explanation:

      It is important to pay close attention to the question being asked. The question inquires about an item that was present in the original classification but not included in ICD-11. While salience is present in both classifications, the Edwards and Gross feature of ‘salience of drink seeking behaviour’ is equivalent to the ICD-11 feature of ‘Increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life’. The original classification included ‘rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence’, which is not present in ICD-11.

      Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: ICD-11 and DSM 5 Criteria

      The criteria for diagnosing alcohol dependence syndrome in the ICD-11 and DSM 5 are quite similar, as both are based on the original concept developed by Edwards and Gross in 1976. The original concept had seven elements, including narrowing of the drinking repertoire, salience of drink seeking behavior, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, relief of withdrawal by further drinking, compulsion to drink, and rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence.

      The DSM-5 Alcohol Use Disorder criteria include a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least two of the following occurring within a 12-month period. These include taking alcohol in larger amounts of over a longer period than intended, persistent desire of unsuccessful efforts to cut down of control alcohol use, spending a great deal of time in activities necessary to obtain alcohol, craving of a strong desire of urge to use alcohol, recurrent alcohol use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations, continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social of interpersonal problems, giving up of reducing important social, occupational, of recreational activities due to alcohol use, recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations, and continued alcohol use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem caused or exacerbated by alcohol. Tolerance and withdrawal symptoms are also included in the criteria.

      The ICD-11 Alcohol Dependence criteria include a pattern of recurrent episodic of continuous use of alcohol with evidence of impaired regulation of alcohol use, manifested by impaired control over alcohol use, increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life, and physiological features indicative of neuroadaptation to the substance, including tolerance to the effects of alcohol of a need to use increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the same effect, withdrawal symptoms following cessation of reduction in use of alcohol, of repeated use of alcohol of pharmacologically similar substances to prevent of alleviate withdrawal symptoms. The features of dependence are usually evident over a period of at least 12 months, but the diagnosis may be made if use is continuous for at least 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which drug is accurately paired with its corresponding half-life? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug is accurately paired with its corresponding half-life?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam - 10-20 hours

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the half-lives of certain benzodiazepines, including diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and zolpidem with a half-life of 2-6 hours.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the process that involves the transfer of amino acids to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the process that involves the transfer of amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Correct Answer: tRNA

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      82.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the reason behind Mirtazapine ability to improve sleep? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the reason behind Mirtazapine ability to improve sleep?

      Your Answer: Alpha 2 antagonist

      Correct Answer: H1 antagonism

      Explanation:

      Mirtazapine works by blocking the activity of 5HT2 and 5HT3, H1, and alpha 1 receptors. These actions promote sleep, except for the alpha 2 receptor, which normally inhibits the release of norepinephrine. As the dosage of mirtazapine increases, its ability to enhance sleep may decrease due to its antagonism of the alpha 2 receptor. Therefore, doses of 30mg of less are typically used to treat insomnia. This information is from the book Foundations of Psychiatric Sleep Medicine, published by Cambridge University Press in 2011, on page 224.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The brainstem contains which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The brainstem contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: The midbrain, pons, medulla and cerebellum

      Correct Answer: The midbrain, pons and medulla

      Explanation:

      Brain stem is the base of the brain that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It consists of the mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is a true statement about dystonia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about dystonia?

      Your Answer: Bradykinesia is an example of a dystonic reaction

      Correct Answer: It can occur on withdrawal of an antipsychotic

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines: Dystonia

      Dystonia is a type of adverse reaction that can occur in patients taking typical antipsychotics. It is characterized by symptoms such as torticollis and oculogyric spasm. About 10% of patients who are exposed to these medications may develop acute dystonia. This reaction is more likely to occur in the early stages of treatment of after a dose increase. Additionally, it can also happen when the patient stops taking the drug. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients closely for signs of dystonia and adjust the medication as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What are some common symptoms that are typically observed in the initial phases...

    Incorrect

    • What are some common symptoms that are typically observed in the initial phases of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hippocampal atrophy

      Explanation:

      The medial temporal lobe, comprising the hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus, exhibits the earliest neuropathological alterations.

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neuro-anatomy (3/3) 100%
Neurosciences (4/5) 80%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Psychopharmacology (6/11) 55%
Assessment (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (2/2) 100%
Psychological Development (0/1) 0%
Dynamic Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
History And Mental State (1/1) 100%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (1/1) 100%
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