00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding the lymphatic system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the lymphatic system?

      Your Answer: The lymphatic system empties into the thoracic duct, which in turn empties into the jugular vein.

      Correct Answer: Lymphatic vessels contain both smooth muscle and unidirectional valves.

      Explanation:

      Fluid filtration out of the capillaries is usually slightly greater than fluid absorption into the capillaries. About 8 L of fluid per day is filtered by the microcirculation and returns to the circulation by the lymphatic system. Lymphatic capillaries drain into collecting lymphatics, then into larger lymphatic vessels. Both of these containing smooth muscle and unidirectional valves. From this point, lymph is propelled by smooth muscle constriction and vessel compression by body movements into afferent lymphatics. It then goes to the lymph nodes where phagocytes remove bacteria and foreign materials. It is here that most fluid is reabsorbed by capillaries, and the remainder returns to the subclavian veins via efferent lymphatics and the thoracic duct. The lymphatic system has a major role to play in the body’s immune defence and also has a very important role in the absorption and transportation of fats.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      84.2
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the...

    Incorrect

    • When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the intervertebral foramina between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, as well as the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae, this causes back pain. Which pair of nerves is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Fourth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves

      Correct Answer: Fifth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves

      Explanation:

      The fifth cervical nerve passes between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, and the fourth thoracic nerve passes between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. Therefore, when the cancer metastasizes in this area, they are most likely affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      156
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with pain in the wrist and a tingling in the hand. On examination Tinel's test is positive and you diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Regarding the carpal tunnel, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus lie within a single synovial sheath.

      Explanation:

      Free movement of the tendons in the carpal tunnel is facilitated by synovial sheaths, which surround the tendons. All of the tendons of the FDP and FDS are contained within a single synovial sheath with a separate sheath enclosing the tendon of the FPL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following ions normally has the highest concentration in intracellular fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ions normally has the highest concentration in intracellular fluid:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: K +

      Explanation:

      Potassium (K+) is the principal intracellular ion; approximately 4 mmol/L is extracellular (3%) and 140 mmol/L intracellular (97%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Treppe effect refers to an increase in contractility secondary to an increase in heart rate.

      Explanation:

      Although Ca2+entry during the action potential (AP) is essential for contraction, it only accounts for about 25% of the rise in intracellular Ca2+. The rest is released from Ca2+stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane. When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+enters the cell during the AP plateau, more Ca2+is stored in the SR, more Ca2+is released from the SR and thus more Ca2+is left inside the cell and greater tension is produced during contraction. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin have a positive inotropic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room with a two-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room with a two-week history of shortness of breath, fevers, and malaise. A chest X-ray was ordered and the results confirmed the diagnosis of a right middle lobe pneumonia.

      Which of the following structures of the heart lies closest to the consolidation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      In its typical anatomical orientation, the heart has 5 surfaces formed by different internal divisions of the heart:

      Anterior (or sternocostal) – Right ventricle
      Posterior (or base) – Left atrium
      Inferior (or diaphragmatic) – Left and right ventricles
      Right pulmonary – Right atrium
      Left pulmonary – Left ventricle

      The silhouette sign of Felson is with respect to the right middle lobe. The right heart border should have a distinct appearance due to the right atrium abutting aerated right middle lobe. The consolidation in the right middle lobe has resulted in loss of this silhouette.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A new chemotherapy drug is being tested. The intervention reduces the risk of...

    Incorrect

    • A new chemotherapy drug is being tested. The intervention reduces the risk of death from 10 in 1000 to 5 in 1000. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one death:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 200

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) of treatment
      = risk of death in control group – risk of death in treatment group
      ARR = (10/1000) – (5/1000)
      = 5/1000 = 0.005
      Number needed to treat (NNT)
      = 1/ARR
      = 1/0.005
      = 200
      Therefore 200 people would need to be treated to prevent one extra death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - You examine a patient's blood tests and discover that her electrolyte levels are...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a patient's blood tests and discover that her electrolyte levels are abnormal.

      Which of the following is the major extracellular cation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      Electrolytes are compounds that may conduct an electrical current and dissociate in solution. Extracellular and intracellular fluids contain these chemicals. The predominant cation in extracellular fluid is sodium, whereas the major anion is chloride. Potassium is the most abundant cation in the intracellular fluid, while phosphate is the most abundant anion. These electrolytes are necessary for homeostasis to be maintained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 43-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto her back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that she has pain on hip abduction, but normal hip extension.

      Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gluteus medius

      Explanation:

      The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.

      The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.
      The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room with complains of a dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room with complains of a dry cough and fever that has been going on for the past few days. Upon history taking and observation, it was established that he works as a Jacuzzi and whirlpool installer and smokes 15 cigarettes per day. The presence of a non-productive cough, several episodes of diarrhoea, developed bilateral pleuritic chest pain, and shortness of breath most notably on exertion were also noted.

      Which of the following is most likely the causative agent of the case presented above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella species are ubiquitous, Gram-negative bacilli acquired primarily through inhalation. Infections caused by Legionella spp. produce a spectrum of symptoms ranging from mild upper respiratory tract infections to pneumonia. Legionella spp. are responsible for 2% to 15% of community-acquired pneumonia.

      Clinical manifestations of Legionella infections include febrile disease with pneumonia (legionnaires’ disease), febrile disease without pulmonary involvement (Pontiac fever), and asymptomatic infection.
      The mode of transmission and the number of infecting organisms in the inoculum play a role in the clinical features of the infection. In addition, host factors, such as a suppressed immune system, chronic lung disease, alcoholism, and heavy smoking, predispose individuals to legionnaires’ disease.

      Legionella spp. can tolerate chlorine concentrations of 3 mg/L, they resist water treatment and subsequently gain entry into and colonize human-made water supplies and distribution systems. Hot water systems, cooling towers, and evaporative condensers are major reservoirs. Other sources include cold water systems, ornamental fountains, whirlpool spas, humidifiers, respiratory
      therapy equipment, and industrial process waters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      The gastric chief cells in the stomach wall releases pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is a proenzyme. It mixes with hydrochloric acid in the stomach and is converted to pepsin. Pepsin breaks down proteins into peptides aiding protein digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonic mass movement occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Colonic mass movement describes the intense contraction that begins halfway along the transverse colon and pushes the intestinal contents in the proximal colon towards the rectum. It occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum as part of the gastrocolic reflex and if faeces is present in the rectum, stimulates the urge to defecate. Distention of the rectum causes firing of afferent cholinergic parasympathetic fibres. The internal sphincter is made up of circular smooth muscle innervated by the autonomic fibres, and the more distal external sphincter is composed of striated muscle innervated by motor fibres from the pudendal nerve. During defaecation, relaxation of pelvic muscles straightens the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Clostridium tetani causes which of the following infectious diseases: ...

    Incorrect

    • Clostridium tetani causes which of the following infectious diseases:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetanus

      Explanation:

      Clostridium tetani causes tetanus.
      Scarlet fever is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
      Toxic shock syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.
      Gas gangrene is primarily caused by Clostridium perfringens.
      Pseudomembranous colitis is commonly caused by Clostridium difficile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that she has a full, plethoric aspect to her face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine her. She has previously been diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome.

      Which of the following biochemical profiles best supports this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

      A typical biochemical profile can help establish a diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome. The following are the primary characteristics:
      Hypokalaemia
      Alkalosis metabolique

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection and is currently under investigation.

      Which of the following markers is considered the earliest indicator of acute infection in acute Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface Ag

      Explanation:

      HBsAg is the serological hallmark of HBV infection. After an acute exposure to HBV, HBsAg appears in serum within 1 to 10 weeks. Persistence of this marker for more than 6 months implies chronic HBV infection.

      Anti-HBs is known as a neutralizing antibody, and confers long-term immunity. In patients with acquired immunity through vaccination, anti-HBs is the only serological marker detected in serum.

      HBcAg is an intracellular presence in infected hepatocyte, thus it is not identified in the serum. During acute infection, anti-HBc IgM and IgG emerges 1–2 weeks after the presence of HBsAg along with raised serum aminotransferase and symptoms. After 6 months of acute infection, anti-HBc IgM wears off. Anti-HBc IgG continues to detect in both patients with resolved HBV infection and chronic hepatitis B.

      Hepatitis D virus, also known as the delta hepatitis virus, is a defective ssRNA virus that requires HBV for replication. The infection can occur in one of two clinical forms, co-infection or superinfection. In a co-infection, the patient is simultaneously infected with HBV and HDV. In a superinfection, an HDV infection develops in a patient with a chronic HBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Bordetella pertussis causes which of the following infectious diseases: ...

    Incorrect

    • Bordetella pertussis causes which of the following infectious diseases:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whooping cough

      Explanation:

      Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough. Acute bronchiolitis is typically caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup. Acute epiglottitis is usually caused by an infection with Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) bacteria. The common cold may be caused by a number of viruses including rhinovirus and coronavirus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of a facial nerve...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of a facial nerve palsy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to raise the eyelid

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve palsy can result in inability to close the eye due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi muscle. Elevation of the eyelid in eye opening is a function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle and the superior tarsal muscle, innervated by the oculomotor nerve and the sympathetic chain respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - In ventricular myocytes, the plateau phase of the action potential comes about through which...

    Incorrect

    • In ventricular myocytes, the plateau phase of the action potential comes about through which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Ca 2+ channels

      Explanation:

      After the intial upstroke of the action potential, Na+channels and currents rapidly inactivate, but in cardiac myocytes, the initial depolarisation activates voltage-gated Ca2+channels (slow L-type channels, threshold approximately – 45 mV) through which Ca2+floods into the cell. The resulting influx of Ca2+prevents the cell from repolarising and causes a plateau phase, that is maintained for about 250 ms until the L-type channels inactivate. The cardiac AP is thus much longer than that in nerve or skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community midwife after a home visit due to jaundice and dyspnoea. After history and examination, the relevant blood work is performed, and the baby is found to have conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The paediatric team suspects a hepatic origin for jaundice based on the findings.

      Which one of the following aetiologies is the most likely cause of jaundice in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      The presence of dyspnoea makes alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the more likely diagnosis as biliary atresia does not cause respiratory symptoms. Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1 antitrypsin causes uninhibited elastase activity and a decrease in elastic tissue. This causes liver cirrhosis leading to an elevation of conjugated bilirubin and emphysema in the lungs.

      Rhesus disease, hereditary spherocytosis and breast milk jaundice cause an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin thus ruling it out in this case. Breast milk jaundice occurs due to an inability of the newborn to metabolize the proteins in breast milk.

      Rhesus disease occurs when an Rh negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive baby. The jaundice would have been accompanied by anaemia and oedema.

      Hereditary spherocytosis occurs due to extravascular haemolysis as defective RBCs are removed by the spleen. The patient would present with jaundice, splenomegaly and possibly an aplastic crisis (if Parvovirus B19 infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for: ...

    Incorrect

    • In all of the following conditions, lymphocytosis typically occurs except for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      In infants and young children, lymphocytosis often occurs in response to infections that would normally produce a neutrophil reaction in adults.
      Lymphocytosis occurs in:
      1. Viral infections (e.g. infectious mononucleosis, HIV, rubella, mumps, viral hepatitis, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex or zoster)
      2. Bacterial infections (e.g. pertussis, tuberculosis, toxoplasmosis, syphilis)
      3. Chronic lymphoid leukaemias
      4. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemias
      5. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
      6. Thyrotoxicosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through the nephron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary→Vasa recta

      Explanation:

      The nephron’s blood flow is as follows:
      Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta – Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta

      The kidney is the only vascular network in the body with two capillary beds. With arterioles supplying and draining the glomerular capillaries, higher hydrostatic pressures at the glomerulus are maintained, allowing for better filtration. A second capillary network at the tubules enables for secretion and absorption in the tubules, as well as concentrating urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding L'Abbe plots, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding L'Abbe plots, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment group results are plotted on the horizontal axis

      Explanation:

      A L’Abbé plot is a scatter plot with the risk in the control group on the x-axis and the risk in the experimental group on the y-axis. It can be used to evaluate heterogeneity in meta-analysis. Furthermore, this plot can aid to choose a summary measure (odds ratio, risk ratio, risk difference) that will result in more consistent results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.

      Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)
      2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)
      3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)
      4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L).

      Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults.

      Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults.

      In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine.

      Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Regarding T helper cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding T helper cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They form the vast majority (about 75%) of the total circulating T-cell population.

      Explanation:

      CD4+ T-cells (Helper T cells)Recognise antigen only in association with HLA class II molecules (found on antigen presenting cells (APCs) e.g. dendritic cells, B-cells; present exogenous antigens that have been phagocytosed/endocytosed into intracellular vesicles)Form most of the circulating T-cell population (about 75%)Secrete cytokines (e.g. IFN-gamma) which are required for recruitment and activation of other immune cells such as macrophages, T cytotoxic cells and NK cells and for the activation of and production of immunoglobulin from B-cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - How is measles primarily transmitted: ...

    Incorrect

    • How is measles primarily transmitted:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory droplet route

      Explanation:

      Measles belongs to the paramyxoviridae group of viruses. The incubation period is 7-18 days (average 10) and it is spread by airborne or droplet transmission. The classical presentation is of a high fever with coryzal symptoms and photophobia with conjunctivitis often being present. The rash that is associated is a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash. Koplik spots are pathognomonic for measles, and are the presence of white lesions on the buccal mucosa.
      Differential diagnoses would include:
      Rubella
      Roseola infantum (exanthem subitom)
      Scarlet fever
      Kawasaki disease
      Erythema infectiosum (5thdisease)
      Enterovirus
      Infectious mononucleosis
      Diagnosis can be confirmed by the following means:
      Salivary swab for measles specific IgM
      Serum sample for measles specific IgM
      Salivary swab for RNA detection
      Possible complications include:
      Otitis media
      Febrile convulsions
      Pneumonia
      Bronchiectasis
      Diarrhoea
      Meningitis
      Encephalitis
      Immunosuppression
      Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
      Death

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.
      Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
      The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
      Susceptible to infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Negative

      Immune due to natural infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Immune due to vaccination:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Acute infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Positive

      Chronic infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has a nerve injury has sparing of the upper half of the orbicularis oculi muscle but not the lower half. Which branch of the facial nerve supplies the lower half of the orbicularis oculi?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zygomatic branch

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve divides into five terminal branches once in the parotid gland.
      1. The temporal branch innervates muscles in the temple, forehead and supraorbital areas.
      2. The zygomatic branch innervates muscles in the infraorbital area, the lateral nasal area and the upper lip.
      3. The buccal branch innervates muscles in the cheek, the upper lip and the corner of the mouth.
      4. The marginal mandibular branch innervates muscles of the lower lip and chin.
      5. The cervical branch innervates the platysma muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which of the following does NOT typically cause a neutrophil leucocytosis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does NOT typically cause a neutrophil leucocytosis:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Causes of neutrophil leucocytosis:
      Bacterial infection
      Inflammation and tissue necrosis (e.g. cardiac infarct, trauma, vasculitis, myositis)
      Metabolic disorders (e.g. uraemia, acidosis, eclampsia, gout)
      Pregnancy
      Acute haemorrhage or haemolysis
      Neoplasms of all types
      Drugs (e.g. corticosteroid therapy, lithium, tetracyclines)
      Asplenia
      Myeloproliferative disorders (e.g. CML, essential thrombocythaemia, polycythaemia vera, myelofibrosis)
      Rare inherited disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - The Frank-Starling curve is shifted downhill in heart failure due to which of...

    Incorrect

    • The Frank-Starling curve is shifted downhill in heart failure due to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease in contractility

      Explanation:

      The Frank–Starling mechanism states that the left ventricle can increase its force of contraction and hence stroke volume in response to increases in venous return and thus preload.

      Changes in afterload or inotropy cause the Frank–Starling curve to rise or fall. In heart failure, the Frank–Starling curve is shifted downward (flattened), requiring higher venous return and filling pressure to enhance contractility and stroke volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Chronic hepatitis and carrier state does not occur in hepatitis A infection and complete immunity is attained after infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard