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  • Question 1 - You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to...

    Correct

    • You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to episiotomy. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (without adrenaline)?

      Your Answer: 3 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The half-life of lidocaine is approximately 1.5 hours. It is a local anaesthetic and the maximum dose that can be given is 3mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started...

    Correct

    • What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started on warfarin therapy due to a pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer: 2.0-3.0

      Explanation:

      Warfarin can be useful for management of thromboembolism. The target INR range for this medication is between 2.0-3.0 in patients with venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism etc. The INR range may increase to 3.0-4.0 in patients with mechanical valves. However, warfarin is not recommended in pregnancy, and Low Molecular Weight Heparin should be used for thromboprophylaxis instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors? ...

    Correct

    • Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors?

      Your Answer: 2,7,9 and 10

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. These include factors 2,7,9 and 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which...

    Correct

    • Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 6-12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following best describes Clomiphene? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes Clomiphene?

      Your Answer: Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene is a non-steroidal compound with tissue selective actions. It is used to induce ovulation in women who wish to become pregnant. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulators.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline? ...

    Correct

    • What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 7mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline is 7mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help...

    Correct

    • Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help to protect neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Maternal exposure to dietary factors during pregnancy can influence embryonic development and may modulate the phenotype of offspring through epigenetic programming. Folate is critical for nucleotide synthesis, and preconceptional intake of dietary folic acid (FA) is credited with reduced incidences of neural tube defects in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen...

    Correct

    • In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen receptors?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene citrate is widely used in the induction of ovulation, especially in the treatment of anovulatory infertility and in conditions such as PCOS. The drug functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, which acts in the hypothalamus to indicate low serum oestrogen levels. Reduced levels of negative feedback stimulate the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulate the production of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the anterior pituitary. These work to increase ovarian follicular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27 year old patient is maintained on warfarin during pregnancy due to...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old patient is maintained on warfarin during pregnancy due to a mechanical mitral valve. She has read about warfarin embryopathy. Which of the following is a typical feature?

      Your Answer: Stippled epiphyses

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus. It causes the formation of multiple ossification centres in the long bones. Resulting in stippled epiphyses and hence deform long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Fentanyl is approximately how many times more potent than morphine? ...

    Correct

    • Fentanyl is approximately how many times more potent than morphine?

      Your Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      Both of these drugs belong to opioid analgesics. Fentanyl is more potent than morphine by 80-100 times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after birth. Subsequent investigation and imaging reveals choanal atresia. Upon questioning the mother reveals she had been getting repeat prescriptions from her GP in Poland without her UK GPs' or your knowledge. Which of the following medication was most likely to cause this?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This is one of the defects attributable to Carbimazole use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is...

    Correct

    • A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is no history of VTE. What is the target INR?

      Your Answer: 2.5 - 3.5

      Explanation:

      With the use of warfarin, strict control of the INR is compulsory. After mitral valve replacement the INR should ideally be kept between 2.5-3.5. If the Ball and Cage or the Tilting Disc is used as a prosthetic valve then the target INR is 3.5, for bi-leaflets the target INR is 3.0 and for biological valves the target INR is 2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist in breast tissue but it acts as a partial oestrogen agonist on the endometrium increasing the risk of hyperplasia and has been linked to endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen improves bone density in post-menopausal women. It is an off license treatment for gynaecomastia. Reduced lactation is a potential side effect of Tamoxifen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You see a patient who gave birth earlier in the day. She was...

    Correct

    • You see a patient who gave birth earlier in the day. She was taken off warfarin during pregnancy and is currently on LMWH. She intends to breastfeed for the first 6-8 weeks and wants advice regarding restarting warfarin. Which of the following is appropriate?

      Your Answer: Recommence warfarin in 5-7 days

      Explanation:

      The use of anticoagulants during pregnancy is a complicated issue because warfarin is teratogenic if used in the first trimester, and is linked with fetal intracranial haemorrhage in the third trimester (mainly at doses 5 mg daily). Low molecular weight heparin may be insufficient at preventing thrombosis in women with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, where the risk of valve thrombus is 10 per cent. Anticoagulation is essential in patients with congenital heart disease who have pulmonary hypertension, or artificial valve replacements, and in those in or at risk of atrial fibrillation. The options are either to continue warfarin for the pregnancy, or replace it with heparin between 6 and 12 weeks gestation to avoid the teratogenic risk. Warfarin should be started a week after delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for Diazepam overdose?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is used for benzodiazepine overdose.
      Naloxone is used for opioid overdose.
      Parvolex (N-acetyl cysteine) is used for paracetamol overdose.
      Protamine can be used for Heparin reversal.
      Beriplex can be used for Warfarin reversal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels? ...

    Correct

    • Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels?

      Your Answer: fast voltage gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      It blocks the voltage gated sodium channels and reduce the influx of sodium ions preventing depolarization of the membrane and blocking the conduction of the action potential. The affinity of the receptor site in the sodium channels depends on whether it is resting, open or inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants whose...

    Correct

    • Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants whose pregnant mothers were treated with which drug:

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that crosses placental barrier. Tetracycline was the first line of therapy in treating infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, chlamydia, rickettsia, and some spirochaetes. It has a wide range of adverse effects and is known for a unique property of being incorporated into skeletal and dental tissues at sites of active mineralization and staining of these tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen is a SERM that is effective in treating hormone-responsive breast cancer, it acts as an antagonist to prevent receptor activation by endogenous oestrogen. As agonist of the endometrial receptors it promotes endometrial hyperplasia and hence increases the risk of endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the...

    Correct

    • A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Use of angiotensin II receptors blocks and ACE inhibitors are known to result in renal dysgenesis. Due to renal dysgenesis oligohydramnios occurs that leads to IUGR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      68.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (19/20) 95%
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