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  • Question 1 - The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from:

      Your Answer: Sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation from the hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Paracrine hormones secreted from the hypothalamus via axons.

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis consists of a collection of axonal projections emerging from the hypothalamus. It releases hormones directly from these axonal endings into circulation; these hormones are oxytocin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - With regard to the cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to the cell membrane:

      Your Answer: It consists of an outer hydrophilic & an inner hydrophobic layer

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists primarily of a thin layer of amphipathic phospholipids that spontaneously arrange with the hydrophobic tail regions on the inside and the hydrophilic head regions outside. Membranes typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50...

    Correct

    • In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: Relative risk=2

      Explanation:

      Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy

      Explanation:

      Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Adrenergic stimulation will lead to myocyte relaxation via the following mechanisms ...

    Correct

    • Adrenergic stimulation will lead to myocyte relaxation via the following mechanisms

      Your Answer: Increased phosphorylation of phosholamban

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following would be a contraindication to thrombolysis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would be a contraindication to thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Intracranial neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to thrombolysis include:

      • Previous intracranial bleeding at any time
      • Stroke in less than 6 months
      • Closed head or facial trauma within 3 months
      • Suspected aortic dissection
      • Ischemic stroke within 3 months (except in ischemic stroke within 3 hours time)
      • Active bleeding diathesis
      • Uncontrolled high blood pressure (>180 systolic or >100 diastolic)
      • Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      • Arterio-venous malformations
      • Thrombocytopenia
      • Known coagulation disorders
      • Aneurysm
      • Brain tumours
      • Pericardial effusion
      • Septic embolus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer: QT interval on ECG

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to ...

    Correct

    • Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to

      Your Answer: Produce pancreatic juice rich in enzymes

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin. Together these enzymes catalyse the digestion of fat, protein, and carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to: ...

    Correct

    • Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to:

      Your Answer: Troponin c

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately:

      Your Answer: -55mv

      Correct Answer: -90mv

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential of the mammalian heart is about -90 mv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer: It is a short-acting anticholinergic agent

      Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except:

      Your Answer: There is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification.

      Explanation:

      All are true except there is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification. There is an exponential rise in amplification of DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes...

    Correct

    • The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes contraction of the intrinsic sphincter?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) is a specific region of the oesophageal circular smooth muscle. It allows the passage of a food bolus to the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus. The tone of the LOS is myogenic in origin and depends on smooth muscle properties that lead to the opening of Ca2+ channels but can also be modulated by enteric motor neurons, the parasympathetic and sympathetic extrinsic nervous system and several neurohumoral substances. Nitric oxide causes LOS relaxation. Acetylcholine and tachykinins are involved in the LOS contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication?

      Your Answer: Ornithine transcarbamylase

      Explanation:

      Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency also known as OTC deficiency is the most common urea cycle disorder in humans. Ornithine transcarbamylase, the defective enzyme in this disorder is the final enzyme in the proximal portion of the urea cycle, responsible for converting carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine into citrulline. OTC deficiency is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner, meaning males are more commonly affected than females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Correct

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?...

    Correct

    • Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Procainamide

      Explanation:

      Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Correct

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one...

    Correct

    • β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?

      Your Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent on the heart?

      Your Answer: It increases the initial velocity of muscle shortening at all loads

      Correct Answer: It decreases the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole

      Explanation:

      Inotropic agents increase the contractility of the heart as well as the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole, generating a greater pressure and increasing the stroke volume e.g. like catecholamines do.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Where is the M1 receptor mainly found? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the M1 receptor mainly found?

      Your Answer: Cardiac muscle

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic postganglionic neurons

      Explanation:

      M1 receptors are found in the sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55 year old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, dry cough and fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, dry cough and fever. She started methotrexate therapy six weeks ago. The current regimen includes methotrexate 15 mg/ week, folic acid 5 mg/day and aspirin 75 mg/day. There is no history of any other chronic illness. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 37.8C, pulse: 100 beats/min, BP: 110/80mmHg and SaO2: 90% on air. Examination reveals synovitis in both wrists, and metacarpophalangeal joints. On auscultation, there are scattered crepitations. Blood test reports are given below:Haemoglobin: 13.1g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL)WBC: 8.2 x109/l (4 – 11 x 109/l)Neutrophils: 5.1×109/l (1.5 – 7 x 109/l)Platelets: 280 x109/l (150 – 400 x 109/L)ESR: 48 mm/hr (0 – 30 mm/1st hr)Urea, electrolytes and creatinine: normalCXR: patchy airspace shadows bilaterallyWhat is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Community acquired pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Pneumonitis is a serious and unpredictable side-effect of treatment with methotrexate (MTX) that may become life-threatening. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxaemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Chest radiography reveals a diffuse interstitial or mixed interstitial and alveolar infiltrate, with a predilection for the lower lung fields. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern with diminished diffusion capacity. Lung biopsy reveals cellular interstitial infiltrates, granulomas or a diffuse alveolar damage pattern accompanied by perivascular inflammation. Most patients present in the first few months of starting methotrexate. It is important that all patients receiving methotrexate be educated concerning this potential adverse reaction and instructed to contact their physicians should significant new pulmonary symptoms develop while undergoing therapy. If methotrexate pneumonitis is suspected, methotrexate should be discontinued, supportive measures instituted and careful examination for different causes of respiratory distress conducted. This may be treated with corticosteroids once underlying infection has been excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the average life span of eosinophils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of eosinophils?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 18 hours

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils have a circulating half-life of approximately 18 hours and a tissue life span of at least 6 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true ...

    Correct

    • With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true

      Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders. Dominance rules for sex-linked gene loci are determined by their behaviour in the female: because the male has only one allele (except in the case of certain types of Y chromosome aneuploidy), that allele is always expressed regardless of whether it is dominant or recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is: ...

    Correct

    • In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is:

      Your Answer: 450-600 mls

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced around 20-25 ml per hour or 480-600ml per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in: ...

    Correct

    • The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in:

      Your Answer: Mitochondria and cytoplasm

      Explanation:

      The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle consists of four enzymatic reactions: one mitochondrial and three cytosolic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?

      Your Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid

      Explanation:

      Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK): ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK):

      Your Answer: It causes gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Explanation:

      CCK has a primary action of increasing the motility of the gallbladder by contracting the muscles in the mucosa of the gall bladder. Apart from this, it augments the action of secretin, resulting in the production of an alkaline pancreatic juice. It increases the synthesis of enterokinase, inhibits gastric emptying and may also enhance the motility of the small intestine and colon. It is released (secreted) by your small intestine during the digestive process. It’s sometimes called pancreozymin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The onset of puberty is triggered by ...

    Correct

    • The onset of puberty is triggered by

      Your Answer: Increase in pulsatile GNRH secretion from hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The onset of puberty is associated with high GNRH pulsing, which precedes the rise in sex hormones. Brain tumours which increase GNRH output may also lead to premature puberty. The cause of the GNRH rise is unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for genetic diversity between individuals:

      Your Answer: Metaphase 2

      Correct Answer: Prophase 1

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages ( laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene ans diakinesis). In prophase 1 chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere. the nucleolus and nuclear envelope are going to disintegrate. the homologous chromosomes will form tetrad and crossing over will occur between the chromosomes (random exchange of genes), the point of exchange is known as the chiasmata, this increases genetic diversity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following is least recognised as a potential complication of acromegaly?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least recognised as a potential complication of acromegaly?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Correct Answer: Mental retardation

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly is a condition that results from excess growth hormone (GH) after the growth plates have closed. It is typically due to the pituitary gland producing too much growth hormone. In more than 95% of people the excess production is due to a benign tumour, known as a pituitary adenoma. The condition is not inherited.Complications:Severe headacheArthritis and carpal tunnel syndromeEnlarged heartLiver fibrosis and bile duct hyperplasiaHypertensionDiabetes mellitus (excess of GH leads to insulin resistance)Heart failureKidney failureColorectal cancerCompression of the optic chiasm leading to loss of vision in the outer visual fields (typically bitemporal hemianopia.)Increased palmar sweating and sebum production over the face (seborrhoea) are clinical indicators of active GH-producing pituitary tumours.hypertensiondiabetes (>10%)cardiomyopathycolorectal cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - The function of the Golgi apparatus is ...

    Correct

    • The function of the Golgi apparatus is

      Your Answer: Maturation of peptides secreted by the rER into functional proteins by glycosylation

      Explanation:

      Steroidogenesis is a multi-step process that occurs in two organelles, the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and the mitochondrion. The Golgi apparatus is a major collection and dispatch station of protein products received from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Proteins synthesized in the ER are packaged into vesicles, which then fuse with the Golgi apparatus. The majority of proteins synthesized in the rough ER undergo glycosylation which occurs in the Golgi apparatus. Glycosylation mainly refers in particular to the enzymatic process that attaches glycans to proteins, lipids, or other organic molecules. These cargo proteins are modified and destined for secretion via exocytosis or for use in the cell. The Golgi apparatus is also involved in lipid transport and lysosome formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

      Explanation:

      In statistical hypothesis testing there are 2 types of errors:- type I: the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true – i.e. Showing a difference between two groups when it doesn’t exist, a false positive. – type II: the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false – i.e. Failing to spot a difference when one really exists, a false negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Β2

      Correct Answer: Α1

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause uterine contraction during pregnancy. They are linked to Gq-proteins that activate smooth muscle contraction through the IP3 signal transduction pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which factor produced by the endothelium is responsible for the regulation of vascular...

    Correct

    • Which factor produced by the endothelium is responsible for the regulation of vascular cell growth?

      Your Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

      Explanation:

      VEGF is produced by the endothelial cells and is the major growth factor responsible for causing vasculogenesis. Some isoforms of this growth factor also have a prominent role in formation of lymphatic vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Activation of baroreceptor reflex involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of baroreceptor reflex involves:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of neurons in the caudal ventrolateral medulla (CVLM)

      Correct Answer: Short term regulation of systemic blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Baroreceptors are found in the heart and the blood vessels. They are the carotid sinus and the aortic arch receptors and respond to the minute to minute change in the blood pressure i.e. a change in the pulsatile pressure and not to a change in the mean arterial pressure. If the pulse pressure decreases, the rate of firing of the receptors decreases, stimulating an increase in the heart rate and blood pressure. Mechanisms that regulate the long term blood pressure control include the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Platelets are stored in this body organ. ...

    Correct

    • Platelets are stored in this body organ.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Megakaryocyte and platelet production is regulated by thrombopoietin. Each megakaryocyte produces between 1,000 and 3,000 platelets during its lifetime. An average of 1011 platelets are produced daily in a healthy adult. Reserve platelets are stored in the spleen, and are released when needed by splenic contraction induced by the sympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:...

    Incorrect

    • Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:

      Your Answer: II and V

      Correct Answer: I and V

      Explanation:

      Nociceptors are receptors of pain sensation. There are 2 primary afferent/sensory pain fibers which transmit impulses from the receptor to the CNS, specifically to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The two fibers are A δ and C fibers. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is the relay centre for sensory information converging from the periphery. Grey matter of the dorsal horn is subdivided in to laminae based on cytoarchitecture. C fibers terminate in lamina II the substantia gelatinosa. A δ fibers terminate primarily in lamina I but some project more deeply to terminate in lamina V.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following receptors are found in the liver? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following receptors are found in the liver?

      Your Answer: α1, β2

      Explanation:

      Liver consists of the sympathetic Alpha 1 and beta 2 receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Normal eukaryote somatic cells have: ...

    Correct

    • Normal eukaryote somatic cells have:

      Your Answer: 23 pairs of chromosomes

      Explanation:

      A normal somatic eukaryotic cell contains 46 chromosomes i.e. 23 pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located: ...

    Correct

    • Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:

      Your Answer: At the base of the crypts

      Explanation:

      Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are...

    Correct

    • Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are true except:

      Your Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In RFLP, polymorphism occurs in 98% of the non coding genome, resulting in no phenotypical change in the organism. A gene is not turned on by a mutation, rather the mutation at the restriction site will alter the DNA and the DNA will now form fragments of different lengths. PCR is a better technique than RFLP.

      A knockout, as related to genomics, refers to the use of genetic engineering to inactivate or remove one or more specific genes from an organism. Scientists create knockout organisms to study the impact of removing a gene from an organism, which often allows them to then learn something about that gene’s function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which one of the following nerve fibers is involved in proprioception? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nerve fibers is involved in proprioception?

      Your Answer: C fiber

      Correct Answer: An α fiber

      Explanation:

      Proprioception, also known as kinaesthesia, is the sense through which humans perceive their own position and movements. α nerve fibers are specifically involved in transmitting proprioception stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man was brought to the ER with acute confusion. He's a known case of bipolar disorder under treatment with mood stabilizers. Blood investigations revealed lithium toxicity. A decision is made to start the patient on sodium bicarbonate. What is the rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate in this patient?

      Your Answer: Central nervous system membrane stabiliser

      Correct Answer: Increases urine alkalinity

      Explanation:

      The rationale behind the use of sodium bicarbonate is that it increases the alkalinity of the urine promoting lithium excretion. The preferred treatment in severe cases would be haemodialysis.Lithium is a mood-stabilizing drug used most commonly prophylactically in bipolar disorder but also as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a very narrow therapeutic range (0.4-1.0 mmol/L) and a long plasma half-life being excreted primarily by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity generally occurs following concentrations > 1.5 mmol/L.Toxicity may be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, diuretics (especially Bendroflumethiazide), ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and metronidazole.Features of toxicityCoarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels)HyperreflexiaAcute confusionSeizureComaManagementMild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal salineHaemodialysis may be needed in severe toxicitySodium bicarbonate is sometimes used but there is limited evidence to support this. By increasing the alkalinity of the urine it promotes lithium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following leads to decreased prolactin levels?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine has an important effect on the regulation of prolactin secretion. Dopamine binds to type-2 dopamine receptors of the lactotroph cells that are functionally linked to membrane channels and G proteins and suppresses the high secretory activity of the pituitary lactotrophs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase V

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - During anaerobic glycolysis, the net production of ATP is: ...

    Correct

    • During anaerobic glycolysis, the net production of ATP is:

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Anaerobic glycolysis is the transformation of glucose to lactate when limited amounts of oxygen (O2) are available. Anaerobic glycolysis is only an effective means of energy production during short, intense exercise, providing energy for a period ranging from 10 seconds to 2 minutes. It produces 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach ...

    Correct

    • HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - The formation of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • The formation of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: NADPH oxidase

      Explanation:

      Superoxide is biologically toxic and is deployed by the immune system to kill invading microorganisms. In phagocytes, superoxide is produced in large quantities by the enzyme NADPH oxidase for use in oxygen-dependent killing mechanisms of invading pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - The premotor cortex is: ...

    Correct

    • The premotor cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 6

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance? ...

    Correct

    • Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance?

      Your Answer: Antioxidants

      Explanation:

      Unlike superoxide, which can be detoxified by superoxide dismutase, the hydroxyl radical cannot be eliminated by an enzymatic reaction but it is believed can be counteracted by antioxidants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Restriction Enzymes... ...

    Correct

    • Restriction Enzymes...

      Your Answer: Cut DNA sequences at specific sites

      Explanation:

      Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that recognise short sequences of double stranded DNA and cut them at specific nucleotide points or sequences. These sequences differ for different restriction endonucleases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the?

      Your Answer: Chloride/bicarbonate exchanger

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen potassium ATPase

      Explanation:

      The rate limiting pump in HCl secretion is the H+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: GnRH antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei? ...

    Correct

    • The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 3 - 12

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Where would one normally find venous valves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where would one normally find venous valves?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The intima of the limb veins is folded at intervals to form venous valves that prevent retrograde flow. There are no valves present in the very small veins, the great veins, or the veins in the brain and viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Correct Answer: Inhibit Folic Acid metabolism

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - If O2 makes up 21% of air, then at one atmosphere (760mmHg) it...

    Correct

    • If O2 makes up 21% of air, then at one atmosphere (760mmHg) it would be expected that the PO2 of inspired air should be 0,21 x 760 = 160mmHg. In the alveoli the actual measure is 149mmHg because…

      Your Answer: Water is equilibrated with air

      Explanation:

      There are several factors that determine the value of alveolar partial oxygen pressure including: the pressure of outside air, the partial pressure of inspired oxygen and carbon dioxide, the rates of total body oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production, the rates of alveolar ventilation and perfusion. The alveolar partial pressure is lower than the atmospheric oxygen partial pressure. One reason is, as the air enters the lungs, it is humidified by the upper airway and thus the partial pressure of water vapour reduces the oxygen partial pressure as water is equilibrated with air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - The branche(s) of the left coronary artery include: ...

    Correct

    • The branche(s) of the left coronary artery include:

      Your Answer: Left circumflex artery & anterior interventricular artery

      Explanation:

      The left main coronary divides into branches:

      1. The left anterior descending artery branches off the left coronary artery and supplies blood to the front of the left side of the heart.

      2. The circumflex artery branches off the left coronary artery and encircles the heart muscle.

      The anterior interventricular artery is otherwise known as the anterior descending branch. The posterior descending artery comes from Right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which one of the following have not been shown to improve mortality in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following have not been shown to improve mortality in patients with chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      A number of drugs have been shown to improve mortality in patients with chronic heart failure:

      • ACE inhibitors (SAVE, SOLVD, CONSENSUS)
      • spironolactone (RALES)
      • beta-blockers (CIBIS)
      • hydralazine with nitrates (VHEFT-1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Bile salts are responsible for: ...

    Correct

    • Bile salts are responsible for:

      Your Answer: The emulsification of fats

      Explanation:

      The main function of bile acids is to allow digestion of dietary fats and oils by acting as a surfactant that emulsifies them into micelles, allowing them to be colloidally suspended in the chyme before further processing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - In Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP), the DNA fragments are separated by length through...

    Correct

    • In Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - What is the primary problem of achalasia ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary problem of achalasia

      Your Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water.On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic.What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.Management: – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.- Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline). – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.- Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?

      Your Answer: Nail dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal] ...

    Correct

    • Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal]

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes the formation of tall tented T waves due to altered repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which intestinal cells play a major role in secretory immunity? ...

    Correct

    • Which intestinal cells play a major role in secretory immunity?

      Your Answer: M cells

      Explanation:

      M cells are specialized epithelial cells of the MALT or mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues. They transport antigens from the intestinal lumen to cells of the immune system, thereby initiating an immune response. T and B cells are lymphocytes found in blood. Mucous cells secrete mucous and can be considered as a part of innate immunity. Chief cells in the gastric mucosa secret pepsin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 62 year old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is walking. She is examined and is found to have pyramidal weakness of her left lower leg. She also has reduced pain and temperature sensation on her right leg and right side of her torso up to the umbilicus. Her joint position sense is also impaired in her left big toe but is found to be normal elsewhere. She has definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Where is the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      In Brown-Sequard syndrome, there is paralysis and loss of proprioception, which occurs on the same (ipsilateral) side of the body, as the lesion. Loss of pain and temperature sensation, therefore, occurs on the opposite (contralateral) side of the body as the lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53...

    Correct

    • With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA

      Explanation:

      P53 has many mechanisms of anticancer function and plays a role in apoptosis, genomic stability, and inhibition of angiogenesis. In its anti-cancer role, p53 works through several mechanisms:It can activate DNA repair proteins when DNA has sustained damage. Thus, it may be an important factor in aging.It can arrest growth by holding the cell cycle at the G1/S regulation point on DNA damage recognitionIt can initiate apoptosis (i.e., programmed cell death) if DNA damage proves to be irreparable.It is essential for the senescence response to short telomeres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly...

    Correct

    • Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly via the:

      Your Answer: Arteriosinusoidal vessels

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers. They include arteriosinusoidal vessels, which connect the arterioles to the heart chambers. The thebesian veins drain the capillaries into the chambers and the arterioluminal vessels drain small arteries directly into the chambers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which pair is correct concerning enteroendocrine cells in the GIT mucosa and their...

    Correct

    • Which pair is correct concerning enteroendocrine cells in the GIT mucosa and their products?

      Your Answer: D cells and somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone is secreted form the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations. Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.Adverse effects:Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned. Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A). As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced. Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What is the function of Activated protein C? ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of Activated protein C?

      Your Answer: Inactivates factor Va

      Explanation:

      Protein C, also known as autoprothrombin IIA and blood coagulation factor XIV, is a zymogen, the activated form of which plays an important role in regulating anticoagulation, inflammation, cell death, and maintaining the permeability of blood vessel walls in humans and other animals. Activated protein C (APC) performs these operations primarily by proteolytically inactivating proteins Factor Va and Factor VIIIa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Cholinergic neurons that pass into a retrograde direction activate neurons that release: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholinergic neurons that pass into a retrograde direction activate neurons that release:

      Your Answer: Acetyl choline

      Correct Answer: Substance P and acetyl choline

      Explanation:

      Serotonin activates sensory neurons that activate the myenteric plexus. Cholinergic neurons passing in a retrograde direction in the myenteric plexus activate neurons that release substance P and acetylcholine, causing smooth muscle contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?

      Your Answer: Reticulospinal

      Explanation:

      Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which statement regarding fever is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Which statement regarding fever is correct:

      Your Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Critical shortening of Telomeres result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Critical shortening of Telomeres result in:

      Your Answer: Activation of p 53 and prb and cell crisis

      Correct Answer: Inactivation of p 53 and prb and cell crisis

      Explanation:

      Telomere length shortens with age. Progressive shortening of telomeres leads to senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells, affecting the health and lifespan of an individual. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper...

    Correct

    • An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years,...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Coronary blood flow occurs in? ...

    Correct

    • Coronary blood flow occurs in?

      Your Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      Coronary arteries are unique in that they fill during diastole, when not occluded by valve cusps nor compressed by myocardial contraction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - What is the average life span of red blood cells? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average life span of red blood cells?

      Your Answer: 4 months

      Explanation:

      Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes: ...

    Correct

    • The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes:

      Your Answer: Binding to myosin after the power stroke to allow uncoupling of actin and myosin

      Explanation:

      After calcium binds to the troponin C, there is a conformational change in the structure of troponin I and tropomyosin, which moves out of the way and frees the site where myosin can bind to actin. This results in the formation of the cross linkage of the actin and myosin giving rise to the power stroke in the contraction phase. This occurs with the release of ADP. When ATP combines to this complex it breaks and the cycle repeats itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Strength of contraction with increase in muscle fiber length

      Correct Answer: Strength of contraction without increase in muscle fiber length

      Explanation:

      When the strength of contraction increases without an increase in fiber length, the EF increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40–45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80–90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Regarding the innervation of cerebral blood vessels, which of the following triggers a...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the innervation of cerebral blood vessels, which of the following triggers a vasoconstrictor effect?

      Your Answer: Substance P

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide-Y

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a potent vasodilator, VIP or vasoactive intestinal peptide has vasodilator properties in the intestines. PHM 27 is a potent calcitonin receptor agonist; endogenous analogue of human VIP. CGRP or Calcitonin Gene-Related Peptide is a vasodilator which is found to play an important role in migraines. Neuropeptide Y is a strong vasoconstrictor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater? ...

    Correct

    • Which two ducts form the ampulla of Vater?

      Your Answer: The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct of Wirsung

      Explanation:

      The ampulla of Vater, also known as the hepatopancreatic ampulla or the hepatopancreatic duct, is formed by the union of the pancreatic duct and the common bile duct. The ampulla is specifically located at the major duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Microtubule subunits include: ...

    Correct

    • Microtubule subunits include:

      Your Answer: Alpha and beta tubulin

      Explanation:

      Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders made up of polymerised α- and β-tubulin dimers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - In the olfactory pathway: Mitral cells project to five regions of the olfactory...

    Incorrect

    • In the olfactory pathway: Mitral cells project to five regions of the olfactory cortex. Which one of the following is not one of the five regions?

      Your Answer: Amygdala

      Correct Answer: Posterior olfactory nucleus

      Explanation:

      The olfactory system contains peripheral and central divisions which are connected by transduction structures. Peripheral division consists mainly of the nostrils, ethmoid bone, nasal cavity, and the olfactory epithelium. Olfactory neurons are receptor cells in the epithelium that detect odour molecules dissolved in the mucus and transmit information about the odour to the brain in a process called sensory transduction. Olfactory nerves and fibers transmit information about odours from the peripheral olfactory system to the central olfactory system of the brain. The main olfactory bulb transmits pulses to both mitral and tufted cells, which help determine odour concentration. These cells also note differences between highly similar odours and use that data to aid in later recognition. The cells are different with the mitral having low firing-rates and being easily inhibited by neighbouring cells, while tufted have high rates of firing and are more difficult to inhibit. The uncus houses the olfactory cortex which includes the piriform cortex, amygdala, olfactory tubercle, and para-hippocampal gyrus. Entorhinal cortex is an area of middle temporal lobe that has connection with the para-hippocampal gyrus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH?

      Your Answer: TRH

      Explanation:

      Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, also known as TRH, thyrotropin-releasing factor, TRF is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus. It functions as a releasing hormone, promoting the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone or thyrotropin and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by: ...

    Correct

    • Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by:

      Your Answer: Passive diffusion

      Explanation:

      Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by simple diffusion along a concentration gradient. Concentration of oxygen and the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli are higher than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. So, oxygen moves from alveoli into blood via simple diffusion according to the concentration gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - The end- diastolic ventricular volume is about? ...

    Correct

    • The end- diastolic ventricular volume is about?

      Your Answer: 130 ml

      Explanation:

      The end diastolic volume in a healthy individual is about 130 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Calcium is mobilized from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through: ...

    Correct

    • Calcium is mobilized from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through:

      Your Answer: Ryanodine receptor (RyR2) calcium release channels

      Explanation:

      During the plateau phase of the action potential, calcium from the extracellular fluid enters through the L type of calcium channels. This entry triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the ryanodine receptors. As a result intracellular calcium increases binding to troponin C resulting in contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal end of the left 3rd costal cartilage to the sternal end of the right 6th costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Inter-ventricular septum

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular (coronary) groove

      Explanation:

      The AV groove corresponds to the right border of the heart. The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Which heart sounds are matched correctly? ...

    Correct

    • Which heart sounds are matched correctly?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      In healthy adults, there are two normal heart sounds often described as a lub and a dub (or dup), that occur in sequence with each heartbeat. These are the first heart sound (S1) and second heart sound (S2), produced by the closing of the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves, respectively. In addition to these normal sounds, a variety of other sounds may be present including heart murmurs, adventitious sounds, and gallop rhythms S3 and S4. S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. S4 when audible in an adult is called a presystolic gallop or atrial gallop. This gallop is produced by the sound of blood being forced into a stiff or hypertrophic ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Correct

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Glucose absorption in the small intestine is coupled with which of the following...

    Correct

    • Glucose absorption in the small intestine is coupled with which of the following electrolytes?

      Your Answer: Na

      Explanation:

      Sodium-glucose linked transporter are family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and absorbs glucose via cotransport of Na+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Which coronary artery supplies the right atria? ...

    Correct

    • Which coronary artery supplies the right atria?

      Your Answer: Right coronary

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery distributes blood to the left side of the heart, the left atrium and ventricle, and the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery arises from the left coronary artery and follows the coronary sulcus to the left. Eventually, it will fuse with the small branches of the right coronary artery. The right coronary artery proceeds along the coronary sulcus and distributes blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the heart conduction system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She was found, lying on the floor having consumed an unidentified quantity of her mother's prescription pills with alcohol. The patient's mother is a known hypertensive under treatment. On examination, the patient was found to be lethargic, hypotensive with a BP of 70/50 mmHg, and bradycardic with a pulse rate of 38 bpm. A finger prick glucose is 3.2 mmol/L. Which TWO among the following are the most appropriate steps for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Isoprenaline and atropine

      Correct Answer: Glucagon and isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate steps of initial management include iv glucagon and iv isoprenaline.The most likely diagnosis in the above scenario (decreased conscious level, profound hypertension, and bradycardia) is β-blocker toxicity/overdose. Bronchospasm rarely occurs in an overdose of β-blockers, except where there is a history of asthma.Immediate management is to give iv glucagons (50–150μg/kg) followed by infusion to treat hypotension and isoprenaline or atropine to treat bradycardia. Where patients fail to respond to these measures, temporary pacing may be required. If the patient is seen within the first 4 hours of the overdose, gastric lavage may be of value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - The cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • The cell membrane:

      Your Answer: Is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of amphipathic lipids with embedded proteins. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. It is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules. The entire membrane is held together via non-covalent interaction of hydrophobic tails, however the structure is quite fluid and not fixed rigidly in place. Membranes are typically 7.5–10 nm in thickness and typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total body iron?

      Your Answer: Ferritin

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Most well-nourished people in industrialized countries have 4 to 5 grams of iron in their bodies. Of this, about 2.5 g is contained in the haemoglobin needed to carry oxygen through the blood, and most of the rest (approximately 2 grams in adult men, and somewhat less in women of childbearing age) is contained in ferritin complexes that are present in all cells, but most common in bone marrow, liver, and spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Which statement is correct regarding mRNA? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct regarding mRNA?

      Your Answer: mRNAs are mainly found in the nucleus and cytoplasm of a cell.

      Explanation:

      mRNA is transcribed from DNA and is carried to the cytosol to be translated. Hence it is mainly found in the cytosol and the nucleus of a cell. It is single stranded and contains the base uracil instead of thymine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - The rate of depolarization of the SA node membrane potential is modulated by...

    Incorrect

    • The rate of depolarization of the SA node membrane potential is modulated by the following:

      Your Answer: Autonomic tone

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Rate of depolarization of the SA node is modulated by all of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Where are the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the cell bodies of preganglionic neurons located?

      Your Answer: Dorsal root

      Correct Answer: Lateral column

      Explanation:

      The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Where do the spinothalamic axons decussate? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the spinothalamic axons decussate?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord

      Explanation:

      The second order neurons from the spinothalamic tract cross obliquely to the opposite side in the anterior grey and white commissure within one segment of the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following the consumption of an unknown drug whilst clubbing. Which of the following features point towards the use of ecstasy?

      Your Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC

      Explanation:

      Hyperthermia (Temperature 39.5 C) points towards the use of ecstasy.MDMA (3,4 – methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or more commonly known as Molly or Ecstasy, is a synthetic psychoactive substance.Patients who consumed MDMA may present in a tachycardic, hypertensive, hyperthermic, and agitated state. Adverse effects, even at minor recreational doses, include increased muscle activity (such as bruxism, restless legs, and jaw clenching), hyperactivity, insomnia, difficulty concentrating and feelings of restlessness.Treatment of MDMA overdose:Emphasis should be on maintaining the airway along with the stabilization of breathing and circulation.Patients may present obtunded due to hyponatremia requiring endotracheal intubation.For the hyperthermic patient, evaporative cooling along with ice packs to the groin and axilla are beneficial.Patients who present in severe toxicity within one hour of ingestion can receive activated charcoal PO or via an NG tube. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, should be avoided as they have no role and can worsen an already compromised liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of ...

    Correct

    • The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of

      Your Answer: The circular muscle layer

      Explanation:

      The pyloric sphincter, or valve, is a strong ring of smooth muscle (circular muscle layer) at the end of the pyloric canal which lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum. It controls the outflow of gastric contents into the duodenum. It receives sympathetic innervation from the celiac ganglion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?

      Your Answer: 0.1

      Correct Answer: 0.14

      Explanation:

      An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage...

    Correct

    • During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage known as:

      Your Answer: Epiphysial plate

      Explanation:

      The epiphysial plate, physis, or growth plate, is a hyaline cartilage plate located near the ends of long bones; it consists of growing tissue. It is found in children and teenagers; in adults, it is replaced by an epiphysial line or epiphysial closure. The epiphysial plate is divided into zones: zone of reserve, proliferation, maturation and hypertrophy, calcification, and ossification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years complains of drooling of saliva and sudden difficulty in swallowing while eating. She is a known hypertensive on treatment. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer: Ba swallow

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia or difficulty in swallowing. Endoscopy allows for visual examination of the oesophagus and is indicated in patients with dysphagia to determine the underlying aetiology, exclude malignant and premalignant conditions, assess the need for therapy, and perform therapy including dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - In the microanatomy of the pituitary gland, the pituicytes present are in fact...

    Correct

    • In the microanatomy of the pituitary gland, the pituicytes present are in fact modified forms of which cells?

      Your Answer: Astrocytes

      Explanation:

      Pituicytes are glial cells present in the pars nervosa, the posterior pituitary gland. Their irregular shape resembles that of astrocytes, and their cytoplasm also has intermediate filaments. They differ from astrocytes in that they have large cytoplasmic lipid droplets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile: ...

    Correct

    • In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile:

      Your Answer: Is the major excretory route for lipid-soluble waste products

      Explanation:

      The end product of haem metabolism is bilirubin and jaundice is caused by increased bilirubin levels in the blood. Gallstones are mainly caused by cholesterol and bile pigments. Bile is the main route of excretion for lipid soluble waste products whereas urine is the main route of excretion of water soluble waste products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH,...

    Correct

    • Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH, which of the following is true about the α- and β-subunits of each hormone?

      Your Answer: Maximal physiological activity occurs only on their combination

      Explanation:

      Glycoprotein hormones (GPHs) are the most complex molecules that function as hormones. They each consist of two different subunits, α and β, which are non-covalently associated. The combination of these subunits results in an increase in their activity and β structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which...

    Correct

    • The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which participates in:

      Your Answer: Sensory, motor and limbic

      Explanation:

      The thalamus has multiple functions. It is the relay station for every sensory system (except olfactory, regulates the sleep-wake cycle and consciousness and also relays motor information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Most of the venous blood returns to the heart through the: ...

    Correct

    • Most of the venous blood returns to the heart through the:

      Your Answer: Coronary sinus and anterior cardiac veins

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins which drain into the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells are caused by the inactivation of Na+ channels?

      Your Answer: Phase 2 : plateau

      Correct Answer: Phase 1 : rapid repolarization

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance...

    Correct

    • Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance of them having a normal child is?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The chance for normal parents having a child with a recessive disease is 1:4 or 25%. As both the parents are heterozygous for this condition. They have a 3:4 chance of having a normal child or 75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Transport of Iron into enterocytes occurs via which membrane transporter? ...

    Correct

    • Transport of Iron into enterocytes occurs via which membrane transporter?

      Your Answer: Divalent metal transporter 1(dmt1)

      Explanation:

      To be absorbed, dietary iron can be absorbed as part of a protein such as haem protein or iron must be in its ferrous Fe2+ form. A ferric reductase enzyme on the enterocytes’ brush border, duodenal cytochrome B (Dcytb), reduces ferric Fe3+ to Fe2+. A protein called divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1), which can transport several divalent metals across the plasma membrane, then transports iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together...

    Correct

    • In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together by:

      Your Answer: Hydrogen bonding.

      Explanation:

      Nucleotides will always bind together via hydrogen bonds. There are two hydrogen bonds present between thymine and adenine and three hydrogen bonds present between guanine and cytosine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin...

    Correct

    • The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin is:

      Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidise

      Explanation:

      Thyroid peroxidase is an enzyme that is secreted into the thyroid colloid. It works by oxidizing iodide ions into iodine which are incorporated into thyroglobulin, in order to produce T3 and T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?

      Your Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer: Coincide with atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      A third heart sound also called a ventricular gallop occurs at the beginning of diastole after S2 and is lower in pitch than S1 or S2 as it is not of valvular origin. The third heart sound is benign in youth, some trained athletes, and sometimes in pregnancy but if it re-emerges later in life it may signal cardiac problems, such as a failing left ventricle as in dilated congestive heart failure (CHF). S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. It may also be a result of tensing of the chordae tendineae during rapid filling and expansion of the ventricle. In other words, an S3 heart sound indicates increased volume of blood within the ventricle. An S3 heart sound is best heard with the bell-side of the stethoscope (used for lower frequency sounds). A left-sided S3 is best heard in the left lateral decubitus position and at the apex of the heart, which is normally located in the 5th left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. A right-sided S3 is best heard at the lower-left sternal border. The way to distinguish between a left and right-sided S3 is to observe whether it increases in intensity with inhalation or exhalation. A right-sided S3 will increase on inhalation, while a left-sided S3 will increase on exhalation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - The following is true in relation to coronary venous drainage? ...

    Correct

    • The following is true in relation to coronary venous drainage?

      Your Answer: Most venous return ultimately drains into right atrium via the coronary sinus

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate. The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).Other treatment modalities include:• Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.• 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)• PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.• Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers? ...

    Correct

    • The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers?

      Your Answer: Granular, purkinje, molecular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers; the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show:Hb: 130g/lPlatelets: 359*109/lWBC: 10*109/lCRP: 89mg/lWhich of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - The following determines the strength of contraction ...

    Correct

    • The following determines the strength of contraction

      Your Answer: Plateau phase

      Explanation:

      The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (or refractory) phase in myocyte action potential prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct...

    Incorrect

    • In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:

      Your Answer: Factor XIa & XIIa

      Correct Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa

      Explanation:

      Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Where is angiotensinogen produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is angiotensinogen produced?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin is a peptide hormone that causes vasoconstriction and a subsequent increase in blood pressure. Angiotensin also stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone promotes sodium retention in the distal nephron, in the kidney, which also drives blood pressure up. It is derived from the precursor molecule angiotensinogen, a serum globulin produced in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Correct

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - The free radical most abundantly formed by the immune system is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The free radical most abundantly formed by the immune system is:

      Your Answer: Superoxide

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyl radical

      Explanation:

      Neutrophil and macrophage phagocytosis stimulates various cellular processes including the respiratory burst whereby increased cellular oxygen uptake results in the production of the potent oxidant bactericidal agents, hypochlorous acid and hydroxyl radical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?

      Your Answer: Adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Central obesity

      Correct Answer: High LDL

      Explanation:

      The World Health Organization 1999 criteria require the presence of any one of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:

      • Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHg
      • Dyslipidaemia: triglycerides (TG): ≥ 1.695 mmol/L and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) ≤ 0.9 mmol/L (male), ≤ 1.0 mmol/L (female)
      • Central obesity: waist: hip ratio > 0.90 (male); > 0.85 (female), or body mass index > 30 kg/m2
      • Microalbuminuria: urinary albumin excretion ratio ≥ 20 µg/min or albumin: creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - Regarding integrins, which option is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding integrins, which option is false?

      Your Answer: All of the options are true

      Correct Answer: Play no role in cell signalling.

      Explanation:

      Integrins are transmembrane receptors that facilitate cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion. Upon ligand binding, integrins activate signal transduction pathways that mediate cellular signals such as regulation of the cell cycle, organization of the intracellular cytoskeleton, and movement of new receptors to the cell membrane. Integrins are obligate heterodimers, meaning that they have two subunits: α (alpha) and β (beta). Integrins play an important role in cell signalling by modulating the cell signalling pathways of transmembrane protein kinases such as receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?

      Your Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value?(TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)

      Your Answer: TP / (TP + FN )

      Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)

      Explanation:

      Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - Where are the principal cells found in the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the principal cells found in the kidney?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      A kidney collecting duct cell can be of two different cell types:Principal cellsIntercalated cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of...

    Correct

    • 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of the following?

      Your Answer: B 12

      Explanation:

      MTR, also known as methionine synthase, is a methyltransferase enzyme, which uses the Vitamin B12 to transfer a methyl group from 5-methyltetrahydrofolate to homocysteine, thereby generating tetrahydrofolate (THF) and methionine. This functionality is lost in vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in an increased homocysteine level and the trapping of folate as 5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate, from which THF (the active form of folate) cannot be recovered. THF plays an important role in DNA synthesis so reduced availability of THF results in ineffective production of cells with rapid turnover, in particular red blood cells, and also intestinal wall cells which are responsible for absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?

      Your Answer: The two strands of DNA are held together by cysteine bonds.

      Explanation:

      The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds formed between the nucleotide bases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (9/12) 75%
Medicine (111/150) 74%
Cell Biology (9/11) 82%
Research Skills (3/4) 75%
Connective Tissue (11/14) 79%
Cardiovascular (18/26) 69%
Gastrointestinal (12/14) 86%
Pharmacology (11/15) 73%
Genetics (11/13) 85%
Metabolism (2/3) 67%
Renal (2/3) 67%
Neurology (8/15) 53%
Haematology (6/9) 67%
Dermatology (3/3) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Geriatrics (1/2) 50%
Passmed