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  • Question 1 - What catalyses the conversion of adenosine to inosine? ...

    Correct

    • What catalyses the conversion of adenosine to inosine?

      Your Answer: Adenosine deaminase

      Explanation:

      Adenosine deaminase (ADA) is an enzyme involved in purine metabolism. It is needed for the breakdown of adenosine from food and for the turnover of nucleic acids in tissues. ADA irreversibly deaminates adenosine, converting it to the related nucleoside inosine by the substitution of the amino group for a keto group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as: ...

    Correct

    • In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:

      Your Answer: The cell divides

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. A somatic cell is any biological cell forming the body of an organism, other than a gamete, germ cell, gametocyte or undifferentiated stem cell. i.e. liver cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland. ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.

      Your Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.

      Explanation:

      Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 74-year-old man who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is being started on digoxin. What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?

      Your Answer: inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Digoxin acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside now mainly used for rate control in the management of atrial fibrillation. As it has positive inotropic properties it is sometimes used for improving symptoms (but not mortality) in patients with heart failure.Mechanism of action:It decreases the conduction through the atrioventricular node which slows the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter.It increases the force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. It also stimulates the vagus nerve.Digoxin toxicity:Plasma concentration alone does not determine whether a patient has developed digoxin toxicity. The likelihood of toxicity increases progressively from 1.5 to 3 mcg/l.Clinical feature of digoxin toxicity include a general feeling of unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, xanthopsia, arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia), and gynaecomastiaPrecipitating factors:HypokalaemiaIncreasing ageRenal failureMyocardial ischemiaHypomagnesaemia, hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, acidosisHypoalbuminemiaHypothermiaHypothyroidismDrugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion in the distal convoluted tubule, therefore, reduce excretion), ciclosporin. Also, drugs that cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics.Management of digoxin toxicity:DigibindCorrect arrhythmiasMonitor and maintain potassium levels within the normal limits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV...

    Correct

    • Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current. ...

    Incorrect

    • The hyperpolarization phase of pacemaker cells is dominated by ____ current.

      Your Answer: H+

      Correct Answer: K+

      Explanation:

      The hyperpolarization phase is a continuation of the repolarization phase but the membrane potential dips below the resting membrane potential. This results due to the fact that the K+ channels take a longer time to close than the Na+ channels. Hence efflux of the K+ will result in hyperpolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Coronary vasoconstriction can be caused by: ...

    Correct

    • Coronary vasoconstriction can be caused by:

      Your Answer: Beta blockage

      Explanation:

      Coronary arteries contain alpha and beta receptors. The alpha receptor stimulates vasoconstriction and beta receptors stimulate vasodilation. When the chronotropic and inotropic effects of noradrenergic receptors are blocked by a B blocking drug, stimulation of the noradrenergic nerves will cause coronary vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the primary problem of achalasia ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary problem of achalasia

      Your Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is pulse pressure? ...

    Correct

    • What is pulse pressure?

      Your Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - According to Poiseuille’s formula, which 1 of the following will lead to increased...

    Correct

    • According to Poiseuille’s formula, which 1 of the following will lead to increased flow?

      Your Answer: Shorter tube

      Explanation:

      V = π p r4 / 8 η lwhere V = discharge volume flow (m3/s)p = pressure difference between the ends of the pipe (N/m2, Pa)r = internal radius of pipe (m)l = length of pipe (m)η = viscosity of fluid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm.Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman has a melanocytic naevi on her left forearm.Which of the following features do not suggest malignant change?

      Your Answer: Decrease in size

      Explanation:

      Melanocytic nevi are benign neoplasms or hamartomas composed of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest and migrate during embryogenesis to selected ectodermal sites (primarily the skin and the CNS), but also to the eyes and the ears.They tend to appear during early childhood and during the first 30 years of life. They may change slowly, becoming raised, changing color or gradually fading.. Pregnancy can increase the number of naevi as well as the degree of hyperpigmentation.They may become malignant and this should be suspected if the naevus increases in size, develops an irregular surface or becomes darker, itches or bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal jointsHeliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swellingShawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light. Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead. Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Correct

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Where is the carotid sinus located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the carotid sinus located?

      Your Answer: After the bifurcation of the carotid artery, on the external carotid

      Correct Answer: After the bifurcation of the carotid artery, on the internal carotid

      Explanation:

      The carotid sinus is a small dilation in the internal carotid artery just above its bifurcation into the external and internal carotid branch. Baroreceptors are present at this dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Superoxide dismutase

      Explanation:

      As superoxide is toxic, nearly all organisms living in the presence of oxygen contain isoforms of the superoxide-scavenging enzyme superoxide dismutase, or SOD. SOD is an extremely efficient enzyme; it catalyses the neutralization of superoxide nearly as quickly as the two can diffuse together spontaneously in solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The infoldings or spaces between the bases of the villi are known as...

    Correct

    • The infoldings or spaces between the bases of the villi are known as

      Your Answer: Crypts of Lieberkühn

      Explanation:

      An intestinal gland (also crypt of Lieberkühn and intestinal crypt) is a gland found in the intestinal epithelium lining of the small intestine and large intestine (colon) between the villi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which hormone results in the production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes but...

    Correct

    • Which hormone results in the production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes but low in volume?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed?

      Your Answer: Canal of schlemm

      Explanation:

      Aqueous humor is a clear protein free fluid secreted by the ciliary body, it travels to the anterior chamber through the pupil and is absorbed through a network of trabeculae into the canal of schlemm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which...

    Correct

    • The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which end of the guanosine rich region.

      Your Answer: 3rd end

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5th-3rd direction resulting in extension of the 3rd end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Fumarate

      Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate

      Explanation:

      Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Where does most fat digestion begin? ...

    Correct

    • Where does most fat digestion begin?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Digestion of some fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine (in the duodenum). The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has presented to the clinic with a complaint of disturbed sleep. The physician has prescribed temazepam. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid

      Explanation:

      Temazepam is an orally available benzodiazepine used in the therapy of insomnia. The soporific activity of the benzodiazepines is mediated by their ability to enhance gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) mediated inhibition of synaptic transmission through binding to the GABA-A receptor.The recommended initial dose for insomnia is 7.5 mg before bedtime, increasing as needed to a maximum dose of 30 mg. The most common side effects of temazepam are dose-related and include daytime drowsiness, lethargy, ataxia, dysarthria, and dizziness.Tolerance develops to these side effects, but tolerance may also develop to the effects on insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - ADH causes? ...

    Correct

    • ADH causes?

      Your Answer: Increased permeability of the collecting ducts to water

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin (ADH) has three main effects:1. Increasing the water permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct cells in the kidney, thus allowing water reabsorption and excretion of more concentrated urine.2. Increasing permeability of the inner medullary portion of the collecting duct to urea by regulating the cell surface expression of urea transporters.3. Acute increase of sodium absorption across the ascending loop of Henle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer: Right vagus

      Correct Answer: Left vagus

      Explanation:

      As the AV node develops from the left side of the embryo It is supplied by the left vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme?

      Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Statins have been found to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) and mortality in those who are at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT? ...

    Correct

    • Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      The liver primarily synthesizes about 20-25% of the total daily cholesterol. Cholesterol is also synthesized to smaller extents in the adrenal glands, reproductive organs (as cholesterol is the precursor of sex hormones), skin and is also produced in the intestines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which cells are considered the source of IL-3? ...

    Correct

    • Which cells are considered the source of IL-3?

      Your Answer: T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      IL-3 stimulates haematopoiesis and is secreted mainly from the T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:

      Your Answer: Na+ dependent peptide transporter 2

      Correct Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1

      Explanation:

      Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (24/30) 80%
Metabolism (2/3) 67%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (4/7) 57%
Gastrointestinal (5/6) 83%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (2/2) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed