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  • Question 1 - Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery?

      Your Answer: Schwannoma

      Explanation:

      Schwannomas are histologically benign neoplasms that arise from nerve sheaths, most commonly from sensory nerve roots. They are generally contained within a capsule, and so can be surgically removed without injuring the associated nerve root. They are histologically benign and less than 1% become malignant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year old man presents with sclerosing cholangitis, blood in his stools and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old man presents with sclerosing cholangitis, blood in his stools and apparent iron deficiency anaemia. What will be the most likely finding on his colonic biopsy?

      Your Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Explanation:

      Sclerosing cholangitis along with the passage of blood in stools suggests ulcerative colitis affecting the mucosa and submucosa of rectum and colon, with a sharp demarcation with the normal tissue. The musclaris layer is involved in severe cases. Initially, the mucosa is erythematous, friable with scattered haemorrhagic areas and loss of normal vascular pattern. Severe disease is indicated by presence of large mucosal ulcers with purulent exudate. There can be islands of normal mucosa between the ulcerated mucosa, along with few hyperplastic inflammatory mucosal lesions (pseudopolyps). Ulcerative colitis does not lead to development of fistulas or abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4500 mIU/ml and AFP 875 ng/ml. What's the serum tumour marker stage in this case?

      Your Answer: S3

      Correct Answer: S1

      Explanation:

      According to AJCC guidelines, the serum tumour marker staging is the following:

      S0: marker studies within normal limits

      S1: lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) less than 1.5 times the reference range, beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) <5000 mIU/ml, and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) <1000 ng/ml S2: LDH 1.5–10 times the reference range, β-hCG 5000–50,000 mIU/ml or AFP 1000–10,000 ng/ml S3: LDH greater than 10 times the reference range, β-hCG >50,000 mIU/ml or AFP >10,000 ng/ml.

      According to this, the patient’s tumour belongs to the S1 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. On examination, he was found to have raised blood pressure. Urine examination showed >300 mg/dl proteinuria (4+) and 24-hour urine protein 3.5g. No glucose, blood, nitrites, urobilinogen or casts were present in urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Membranous glomerulonephritis or nephropathy, is a renal disorder with insidious course and usually affects people aged 30-50 years. 85% cases are primary (or idiopathic). The other 15% are secondary to autoimmune conditions like SLE, infections like malaria or hepatitis B, drugs like captopril and NSAIDs, or malignancies (particularly lung or colonic carcinoma). This disease is caused due to circulating immune complexes which are said to form by binding of antibodies to antigens in glomerular basement membrane. This antigens could be endogenous or derived from systemic circulation. This immune complex triggers the complement system, resulting in formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) on glomerular epithelial cells. This further results in release of proteases and oxidants which damage the capillaries making them ‘leaky’. Moreover, the epithelial cells also secrete a mediator to reduce nephron synthesis and distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man underwent CT scan of the whole abdomen. The result showed...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man underwent CT scan of the whole abdomen. The result showed renal cell carcinoma with a tumour size of 7cm and extension into the regional lymph. What is the clinical stage of his renal cell cancer?

      Your Answer: Stage III

      Explanation:

      Renal cell carcinoma is a kidney cancer that originates in the lining of the proximal convoluted tubule. It is the most common type of kidney cancer in adults, responsible for approximately 90–95% of cases. Renal cell carcinomas can be staged by using the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) TNM (tumour-node-metastasis) classification, as follows: Stage I: tumours that are 7 cm or smaller and confined to the kidney, Stage II: tumours that are larger than 7 cm but still confined to the kidney, Stage III: tumours extending into the renal vein or vena cava, involving the ipsilateral adrenal gland and/or perinephric fat, or which have spread to one local lymph node and Stage IV: tumours extending beyond Gerota’s fascia, to more than one local node, or with distant metastases Recent literature has questioned whether the cut-off in size between stage I and stage II tumours should be 5 cm instead of 7 cm. The patient’s cancer in this case is stage III.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An abnormal opening of the urethra on the under surface of the penis...

    Correct

    • An abnormal opening of the urethra on the under surface of the penis (ventral surface) is known as:

      Your Answer: Hypospadias

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is the condition where the urethra opens along the underside or ventral aspect of penile shaft. First-degree hypospadias is seen in 50-75% cases, where the urethra open on the glans penis. Second-degree hypospadias is seen in 20% cases where the urethra opens on the shaft, and third-degree in 30% cases with the urethra opening on the perineum. The severe cases are usually associated with undescended testis (cryptorchidism) or chordee, where the penis is tethered downwards and not completely separated from the perineum.

      It is a common male genital birth defect but varying incidences are noted in different countries. There is no obvious inheritance pattern noted. No exact cause has been determined, however several hypotheses include poor response to androgen, or interference by environmental factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone -particularly long bones- which worsens at night, and is typically relieved by common analgesics, such as aspirin?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma, which tends to affect young adults, can occur in any bone but is most common in long bones. It can cause pain (usually worse at night) that is typically relieved by mild analgesics, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. X-ray findings include a small radiolucent zone surrounded by a larger sclerotic zone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with use of oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Cyst formation

      Explanation:

      Breast cysts are common and are smooth, firm, mobile lumps that can sometimes be tender. Cysts can also be bilateral and are known to recur in 10% of cases. They are more common in women in the third and fourth decades and most often disappear after menopause. Cysts are filled with fluid from the breast which occurs due to the normal menstrual cycle of a woman. The end of the menstrual cycle causes breast cells to swell. After the menses, the cells shrink and the released fluid disappears. However, in some cases this fluid forms a cyst. Incidence of cysts was also linked to use of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      96.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process?

      Your Answer: Leukocyte adhesion

      Explanation:

      Steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function include:

      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel.

      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls.

      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes. Interaction of these results in adhesion.

      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product.

      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in her shoulders and hips for 4 months, which is worst in the mornings. She has also been suffering from fatigue, weight loss and depression. There were no abnormal findings on physical examination. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 110 mm/hour, and serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays were negative. Mild normochromic normocytic anaemia was also found. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) affects older adults, with an acute or subacute onset. Symptoms include severe pain and stiffness of the neck and pectoral or pelvic girdles, which is worse in the morning or after a period of inactivity and is usually bilateral. Other symptoms can include fatigue, weight loss, depression and fever. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated, and normochromic normocytic anaemia can occur. Other tests are usually normal in this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a...

    Correct

    • Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a premenopausal woman?

      Your Answer: Dermoid cyst

      Explanation:

      A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature and solid tissues. Dermoid cysts grow slowly and this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a history of sore throat for the past 1 day. On examination there was a pharyngeal purulent discharge. Which of the following types of inflammation is seen in this boy?

      Your Answer: Acute inflammation

      Explanation:

      A 1 day history suggests the purulent discharge is due to acute inflammation. Acute inflammation has 3 features:

      1) the affected area is occupied by a purulent discharge composed of proteins, fluids and cells from local blood vessels

      2) the infective agent i.e. bacteria is present in the affected area

      3) the damaged tissue can be liquified and the debris removed from the site.

      If the inflammation lasts over weeks or months, then it is termed as chronic inflammation.

      Granulomatous inflammation is characterised by the presence and formation of granulomas.

      Exudate is not a feature of resolution or a complication of inflammation.

      Abscess formation takes more than 1 day to form and is usually within a capsule/cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following :...

    Correct

    • Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following : clear, yellow fluid with protein 2.0 g/dl and a few mesothelial and mononuclear cells seen. No malignant cells seen. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Ascites develops either from:

        • Increased  accumulation
          • Increased capillary permeability
          • Increased venous pressure
          • Decreased protein (oncotic pressure)
        • Decreased clearance
          • Increased lymphatic obstruction

      Cause

      • Transudate (<30g/L protein) (Systemic disease)
        • Liver (Cirrhosis)
        • Cardiac e.g. RHF, CCF, SBE right heart valve disease and constrictive Pericarditis
        • Renal failure
        • Hypoalbuminaemia (nephrosis)
      • Exudate (>30g/L protein) (Local disease)
        • Malignancy
        • Venous obstruction e.g. Budd-Chiari, Schistosomiasis
        • Pancreatitis
        • Lymphatic obstruction
        • Infection (especially TB)

      Cirrhosis is disease of the liver that is characterized by fibrosis leading to disorganization of the hepatic architecture. It shows the development of regenerative nodules surrounded by dense fibrotic tissue. Cirrhosis shows non-specific symptoms initially, which include fatigue, anorexia and weight loss. It can later progress to portal hypertension, ascites and liver failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      67
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?...

    Incorrect

    • Cancer of the testis most likely metastases to which set of lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Correct Answer: Aortic

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of an organ is related to its blood supply. The lymphatic drainage of the testis drains along the testicular artery to reach the lymph nodes along the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Correct

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.

      Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.

      Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.

      Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Correct

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which tumour site is more commonly involved in adults than in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which tumour site is more commonly involved in adults than in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung

      Explanation:

      In adults, the most common primary site of tumour is in the lungs, compared to children wherein the most common primary site is the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake 200 ml/min, oxygen concentration in the peripheral vein 7 vol%, oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery 10 vol% and oxygen concentration in the aorta 15 vol%.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The Fick’s principle states that the uptake of a substance by an organ equals the arteriovenous difference of the substance multiplied by the blood flowing through the organ. We can thus calculate the pulmonary blood flow with pulmonary arterial (i.e., mixed venous) oxygen content, aortic oxygen content and oxygen uptake. The pulmonary blood flow, systemic blood flow and cardiac output can be considered the same assuming there are no intracardiac shunts. Thus, we can calculate the cardiac output. Cardiac output = oxygen uptake/(aortic − mixed venous oxygen content) = 200 ml/min/(15 ml O2/100 ml − 10 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/(5 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/0.05 = 4000 ml/min.

      It is crucial to remember to use pulmonary arterial oxygen content and not peripheral vein oxygen content, when calculating the cardiac output by Fick’s method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver flukes

      Explanation:

      Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

      Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.

      Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

      Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.

      Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.

      Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35 year old man presented to the surgical OPD with a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old man presented to the surgical OPD with a lump on his right forearm which appeared 3 weeks ago and was tender on examination. He gave a history was being in a car accident with pieces of glass from the windshield piercing his forearm removed manually and on further elective surgery. Which of these cells are characteristically found during inflammation in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant cell

      Explanation:

      A foreign body reaction Is characteristic of giant cells. Glass being the foreign object initiates an inflammatory response in this condition.

      Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions.

      Eosinophils are characteristic of a parasitic infection and allergic inflammatory process but are not due to foreign bodies.

      Plasma cells are typical of chronic inflammation.

      Lymphocytes are involved in viral infections.

      Macrophages combine together to form giant cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the most likely cause of bitemporal hemianopia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely cause of bitemporal hemianopia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      Prolactinoma is the mot common pituitary adenoma; leading to hyperprolactinaemia. By virtue of their size, macroprolactinomas press on the adjacent structures leading to headaches and loss of vision due to the pressure effect on optic chiasm. Women notice a change in their menstrual cycle due to raised prolactin levels. In comparison, the problem goes unnoticed in men in the initial stages. Craniopharyngioma is a less common space-occupying lesions affecting children and young adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure, is likely to eventually present with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      When the parathyroid glands secrete excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to hypocalcaemia, it is known as Secondary hyperparathyroidism and is often seen in patients with renal failure. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys fail to excrete adequate phosphorus and also fail to convert enough vitamin D to its active form. This leads to formation of insoluble calcium phosphate in the body which ultimately causes hypocalcaemia. The glands then undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include bone and joint pains, along with limb deformities. The raised PTH also results in pleiotropic effects on blood, the immune system and nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation,...

    Incorrect

    • The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Equal

      Explanation:

      In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the right breast with enlarged axillary nodes on the same side. She underwent mastectomy and axillary node clearance. These were sent for histopathological examination. They showed no signs of metastasis. What could be cause of this enlargement in the lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinus histiocytosis

      Explanation:

      Sinus histiocytosis also referred to as reticular hyperplasia, refers to the enlargement, distention and prominence of the sinusoids of the lymph nodes. This is a non-specific form of hyperplasia characteristically seen in lymph nodes that drain tumours. The endothelial lining of the lymph node becomes markedly hypertrophied, along with an increase in the number of macrophages which results in the distortion, distention and enlargement of the sinus. In this scenario there is no evidence that an infection or another malignancy could account for the enlargement. Paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia is caused by an immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Female Health
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is A- blood group. Her first child was Rh+ and the father is also Rh+. The second child is at a risk of developing which condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic disease of the new-born

      Explanation:

      This infant is at risk for haemolytic disease of the new born also known as erythroblastosis fetalis. In the pregnancy, Rh-positive RBC’s cross the placenta and enter the mothers blood system. She then becomes sensitised and forms IgG antibodies/anti-Rh antibodies against them. The second child is at a greater risk for this disease than the first child with Rh-positive blood group as during the second pregnancy, a more powerful response is produced. IgG has the ability to cross the placenta and bind to the fetal RBCs (type II hypersensitivity reaction) which are phagocytosed by the macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has a neoplasm, which of the following are most commonly found to involve the lung:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Lung metastases occur when a cancer started in another part of the body (primary site) spreads to the lungs. The lungs are among the most common site where cancer can spread due to its rich systemic venous drainage, almost every type of cancer can spread to the lung. The most common types of cancer that spread to the lung are breast, colorectal, kidney, testicular, bladder, prostate, head and neck cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found on fine-needle aspiration. Frozen section of multiple thyroid masses showed malignant neoplasm of polygonal cells in nests. The neoplasm also showed presence of amyloid which was positive with Congo-red staining. Immunoperoxidase staining for calcitonin was also positive. Chest X-ray revealed no abnormality. However, his blood pressure was found to be raised, and his serum ionised calcium was high. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIA

      Explanation:

      MEN (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia) syndromes are a group of three separate familial disease which consists of adenomatous hyperplasia and neoplasia in several endocrine glands. All three conditions are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, with a single gene producing multiple effects. MEN IIA is characterized by medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism. It should be suspected in patients with bilateral pheochromocytoma, a familial history of MEN, or at least two characteristic endocrine manifestations. Genetic testing is used to confirm the diagnosis. Early diagnosis is crucial to aid in complete excision of the localized tumour. Pheochromocytomas can be detected by plasma free metanephrines and fractionated urinary catecholamines, particularly adrenaline (epinephrine).

      Imaging studies such as computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging might also prove useful. Hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by the standard finding of hypercalcaemia, hypophosphatemia and an increased parathyroid hormone level. Once MEN IIA syndrome is identified in any patient, it is recommended that his or her first-degree relatives and any other symptomatic also undergo genetic testing. Relatives should be subjected to annual screening for hyperparathyroidism and pheochromocytoma beginning in early childhood and continue indefinitely. Serum calcium levels help in screening for hyperparathyroidism. Similarly, screening for pheochromocytoma is by history, measurement of the blood pressure and laboratory testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant mesothelioma. Exposure to which...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant mesothelioma. Exposure to which substance increased his risk in developing mesothelioma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asbestos

      Explanation:

      Mesothelioma is a rare, aggressive form of cancer that develops in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. It is linked to inhalation of asbestos commonly used in ship building and the insulation industry. It has no known cure and has a very poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (9/16) 56%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Urology (1/2) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (3/3) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/2) 0%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/2) 50%
Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed