00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which factor is most closely linked to the development of dementia in individuals...

    Correct

    • Which factor is most closely linked to the development of dementia in individuals with HIV?

      Your Answer: Monocyte infiltration and microglial activation

      Explanation:

      The strongest association with HIV dementia is the infiltration of monocytes and activation of microglia in the brain. While the presence of HIV encephalopathy is somewhat linked to HIV associated dementia, the extent of monocyte infiltration and microglial activation is the best indicator of AIDS dementia. Microglia can cause damage to neurons by releasing oxidative radicals, nitric oxide, and cytokines. The correlation between viral load and HAD is not significant. Astrocytes have limited susceptibility to HIV infection, and neuronal infection is rare and unlikely to have a significant impact on HIV-related CNS disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Through which route does the caudate nucleus obtain its blood supply? ...

    Correct

    • Through which route does the caudate nucleus obtain its blood supply?

      Your Answer: Anterior and middle cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the caudate nucleus primarily comes from the deep penetrators of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. The effects of caudate infarcts can differ depending on the study, but typically include behavioral symptoms such as abulia and agitation, loss of executive function, and motor weakness.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What gene is linked to frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism? ...

    Correct

    • What gene is linked to frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism?

      Your Answer: MAPT

      Explanation:

      FTDP-17 is a type of frontotemporal dementia that results from a mutation in the MAPT gene found on chromosome 17. The MAPT gene is responsible for producing Tau protein.

      Genes Associated with Dementia

      Dementia is a complex disorder that can be caused by various genetic and environmental factors. Several genes have been implicated in different forms of dementia. For instance, familial Alzheimer’s disease, which represents less than 1-6% of all Alzheimer’s cases, is associated with mutations in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP, and ApoE genes. These mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. On the other hand, late-onset Alzheimer’s disease is a genetic risk factor associated with the ApoE gene, particularly the APOE4 allele. However, inheriting this allele does not necessarily mean that a person will develop Alzheimer’s.

      Other forms of dementia, such as familial frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, CADASIL, and dementia with Lewy bodies, are also associated with specific genes. For example, C9orf72 is the most common mutation associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, while Huntington’s disease is caused by mutations in the HTT gene. CADASIL is associated with mutations in the Notch3 gene, while dementia with Lewy bodies is associated with the APOE, GBA, and SNCA genes.

      In summary, understanding the genetic basis of dementia is crucial for developing effective treatments and preventive measures. However, it is important to note that genetics is only one of the many factors that contribute to the development of dementia. Environmental factors, lifestyle choices, and other health conditions also play a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?...

    Correct

    • What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?

      Your Answer: Ordering is the most common compulsion

      Explanation:

      In adults with learning disability, ordering is the most prevalent compulsion, whereas hand-washing, checking, and cleaning are more common in the general population. The prevalence rate of OCD in learning disability is higher at 2.5% compared to the general population. However, it can be challenging to distinguish OCD from other behaviors associated with learning disability syndromes, such as tics, stereotyped behaviors, and autism spectrum disorder. Additionally, assessing obsessional thoughts in individuals with learning disability can be challenging due to their difficulty in articulating them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A client who needs to begin taking an antipsychotic expresses worry about the...

    Correct

    • A client who needs to begin taking an antipsychotic expresses worry about the potential for weight gain. They inquire about which antipsychotic is linked to the highest amount of weight gain. What would you say in response?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What conditions can be identified through administering a clock drawing test? ...

    Correct

    • What conditions can be identified through administering a clock drawing test?

      Your Answer: Constructional dyspraxia

      Explanation:

      The clock drawing test (CDT) is primarily utilized as a tool for screening cognitive impairment and dementia, as well as measuring spatial dysfunctions and neglect. However, it is not effective in detecting abnormal time perception, disorientation, of poor attention. For identifying disorientation to time, place, and person, the mini-mental state examination (MMSE) is a more suitable screening tool. Additionally, while abnormal clock drawing may occur in other cognitive impairments, CDT is not utilized for detecting episodic memory loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man presents with difficulty walking, muscle weakness, tremors, difficulty speaking, difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with difficulty walking, muscle weakness, tremors, difficulty speaking, difficulty swallowing, and visual hallucinations. After evaluation and testing, he was diagnosed with Fahr's syndrome. Which area is most likely to be affected on his CT scan?

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      Fahr’s syndrome is a rare condition where calcium deposits accumulate in the brain’s basal ganglia, which control movement. This can lead to neuropsychiatric symptoms such as dementia, psychosis, and behavioral changes. The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, produces hormones that affect various parts of the body. The occipital lobe is responsible for vision, while the cerebellum controls motor coordination, balance, and muscle tone. The hippocampus, located in the medial temporal lobe, is involved in spatial navigation and memory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which process breaks down dopamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which process breaks down dopamine?

      Your Answer: COMT and both forms of MAO

      Explanation:

      COMT and both types of MAO are responsible for the metabolism of dopamine.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What mechanism is believed to be responsible for the weight gain induced by...

    Correct

    • What mechanism is believed to be responsible for the weight gain induced by antipsychotic medications?

      Your Answer: Histamine receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Psychotropic Drugs (Receptor Based)

      The use of psychotropic drugs can lead to various side effects, which are often receptor-based. Some of the most common side effects are listed below:

      Antidopaminergic Effects: These effects include galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic Central M1: This can cause memory impairment and confusion.

      Anticholinergic Peripheral M1: This can lead to dry mouth, blurred vision, glaucoma, sinus tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Histaminergic H1: This can result in weight gain and sedation.

      Adrenergic Alpha 1 Antagonist: This can cause orthostatic hypotension, sexual dysfunction, and sedation.

      5HT2a and 5-HT2c Antagonism: This can lead to weight gain.

      It is important to note that these are just some of the more common side effects and that individuals may experience different side effects depending on their unique physiology and the specific drug they are taking. It is always important to discuss any concerns of side effects with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is a first-rank symptom? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a first-rank symptom?

      Your Answer: Thought withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Kurt Schneider identified a set of symptoms that are highly indicative of schizophrenia, but not diagnostic. These are known as first-rank symptoms and include thought echo, third person auditory hallucinations, running commentary, made affect, made volition, made impulse, thought withdrawal, thought insertion, thought broadcast, delusional perception, and somatic passivity. Additionally, Schneider identified second-rank symptoms, which are common in schizophrenia but also occur in other mental illnesses. These include mood changes, emotional blunting, perplexity, and sudden delusional ideas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old individual who has been struggling with opioid addiction is experiencing symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old individual who has been struggling with opioid addiction is experiencing symptoms of opioid dependence. What electroencephalographic alterations are commonly observed in cases of opioid dependence?

      Your Answer: Decreased alpha activity

      Explanation:

      Opioid dependence is characterized by a decrease in alpha activity on electroencephalography (EEG). Other drugs have distinct EEG changes, such as increased beta activity with benzodiazepines, decreased alpha activity and increased theta activity with alcohol, and increased beta activity with barbiturates. Marijuana use is associated with increased alpha activity in the frontal area of the brain and overall slow alpha activity. During opioid overdose, slow waves may be observed on EEG, while barbiturate withdrawal may result in generalized paroxysmal activity and spike discharges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which drug is desipramine the active metabolite of? ...

    Correct

    • Which drug is desipramine the active metabolite of?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants with Active Metabolites

      Many antidepressants have active metabolites that can affect the body’s response to the medication. For example, amitriptyline has nortriptyline as an active metabolite, while clomipramine has desmethylclomipramine. Other antidepressants with active metabolites include dosulepin, doxepin, imipramine, lofepramine, fluoxetine, mirtazapine, trazodone, and venlafaxine.

      These active metabolites can have different effects on the body compared to the original medication. For example, nortriptyline is a more potent inhibitor of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake than amitriptyline. Similarly, desipramine, the active metabolite of imipramine and lofepramine, has a longer half-life and is less sedating than the original medication.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the active metabolites of antidepressants when prescribing medication and monitoring patients for side effects and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a frequently observed side effect of carbamazepine?

      Your Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      The use of carbamazepine often results in numerous side effects, with ataxia being a common occurrence.

      Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, Contraindications, Warnings, and Side-Effects

      Carbamazepine, also known as Tegretol, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used for neuropathic pain, bipolar disorder, and other conditions. The drug works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, carbamazepine has notable contraindications, including a history of bone marrow depression and combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). It also carries warnings for serious dermatological reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson syndrome.

      Common side-effects of carbamazepine include leucopenia, ataxia, dizziness, somnolence, vomiting, nausea, urticaria, and fatigue. Other side-effects include thrombocytopenia, eosinophilia, oedema, fluid retention, weight increase, hyponatraemia, and blood osmolarity decreased due to an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-like effect, leading in rare cases to water intoxication accompanied by lethargy, vomiting, headache, confusional state, neurological disorders, diplopia, accommodation disorders (e.g. blurred vision), and dry mouth.

      In summary, carbamazepine is a medication with multiple uses, but it also carries significant contraindications, warnings, and side-effects that should be carefully considered before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in cases of delirium? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in cases of delirium?

      Your Answer: Disturbance in the sleep-wake cycle

      Explanation:

      The disturbance of the sleep-wake cycle is frequently linked to delirium, which can cause problems such as daytime drowsiness, nighttime restlessness, trouble falling asleep, excessive sleepiness during the day, of staying awake throughout the night. These sleep-wake disruptions are so prevalent in delirium that they have been suggested as a fundamental requirement for diagnosis according to the DSM-V (2013).

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is another term for a neuropathic gait? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is another term for a neuropathic gait?

      Your Answer: Equine gait

      Explanation:

      Gait disorders can be caused by a variety of conditions, including neurological, muscular, and structural abnormalities. One common gait disorder is hemiplegic gait, which is characterized by unilateral weakness on the affected side, with the arm flexed, adducted, and internally rotated, and the leg on the same side in extension with plantar flexion of the foot and toes. When walking, the patient may hold their arm to one side and drag their affected leg in a semicircle (circumduction) due to weakness of leg flexors and extended foot. Hemiplegic gait is often seen in patients who have suffered a stroke.

      Other gait disorders include ataxic gait, spastic gait, and steppage gait, each with their own unique characteristics and associated conditions. Accurate diagnosis and treatment of gait disorders is important for improving mobility and quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What symptom indicates the presence of a cerebellar lesion? ...

    Correct

    • What symptom indicates the presence of a cerebellar lesion?

      Your Answer: Nystagmus

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar Dysfunction: Symptoms and Signs

      Cerebellar dysfunction is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. The symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction include ataxia, intention tremor, nystagmus, broad-based gait, slurred speech, dysdiadochokinesis, and dysmetria (lack of finger-nose coordination).

      Ataxia refers to the lack of coordination of voluntary movements, resulting in unsteady gait, difficulty with balance, and clumsiness. Intention tremor is a type of tremor that occurs during voluntary movements, such as reaching for an object. Nystagmus is an involuntary movement of the eyes, characterized by rapid, jerky movements.

      Broad-based gait refers to a wide stance while walking, which is often seen in individuals with cerebellar dysfunction. Slurred speech, also known as dysarthria, is a common symptom of cerebellar dysfunction, which affects the ability to articulate words clearly. Dysdiadochokinesis is the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as tapping the fingers on the palm of the hand.

      Dysmetria refers to the inability to accurately judge the distance and direction of movements, resulting in errors in reaching for objects of touching the nose with the finger. These symptoms and signs of cerebellar dysfunction can be caused by a variety of conditions, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, and alcoholism. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, physical therapy, and surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to...

    Correct

    • Can you identify the neurotransmitter that is often studied and also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF)?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary gland is inhibited by dopamine, which is also referred to as prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) and prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH). The reason why antipsychotic medications are linked to hyperprolactinaemia is due to the antagonism of dopamine receptors. On the other hand, serotonin and melatonin seem to stimulate prolactin secretion. While animal studies have indicated that adrenaline and noradrenaline can decrease prolactin secretion, their effect is not as significant as that of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a true statement about dopamine receptors? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about dopamine receptors?

      Your Answer: Activation of D1 receptors activates adenylyl cyclase

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The prevalence of a homozygous recessive condition is 1 in 3600 individuals at...

    Correct

    • The prevalence of a homozygous recessive condition is 1 in 3600 individuals at birth. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what fraction of the population would be carriers of the recessive allele?

      Your Answer: 1 in 30

      Explanation:

      The Hardy-Weinberg proportions, which are the genotype proportions of p2, 2pq, and q2, can be expressed as p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 and p + q = 1. If we assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can calculate the frequency of the recessive allele (q) by taking the square root of the frequency of the affected homozygous recessive disorder, which is 1/60 in this case. The frequency of the normal allele (p) can be calculated as 59/60 (1 − 1/60). The number of heterozygous carriers (2pq) can be calculated as 2 × 59/60 × 1/60, which is equal to 118/3600 of approximately 1/30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the definition of sleep latency? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of sleep latency?

      Your Answer: The time taken to fall asleep after going to bed

      Explanation:

      Sleep Stages

      Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.

      Sleep stage
      Approx % of time spent in stage
      EEG findings
      Comment

      I
      5%
      Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
      The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.

      II
      45%
      Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
      Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.

      III
      15%
      Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
      Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.

      IV
      15%
      Mixed, predominantly beta
      High dream activity.

      The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.

      It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.

      REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM

      Characteristics of REM sleep

      – Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
      – Loss of muscle tone
      – Dreaming
      – Rapid eye movements
      – Penile erection

      Deafness:

      (No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Who coined the term 'dementia praecox' in the field of psychiatry? ...

    Correct

    • Who coined the term 'dementia praecox' in the field of psychiatry?

      Your Answer: Emil Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      Emil Kraepelin is credited with establishing modern scientific psychiatry and coining the term dementia praecox, while Aaron Beck is known as the pioneer of cognitive therapy. Carl Jung founded analytical psychotherapy, and Eugen Bleuler is recognized for introducing the term schizophrenia to replace dementia praecox. Additionally, Karl Jaspers was a psychiatrist and existential philosopher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which antihistamine is associated with the side effects of dry mouth, blurred vision,...

    Correct

    • Which antihistamine is associated with the side effects of dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Diphenhydramine

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention are commonly observed with the use of first generation H1 antihistamines like diphenhydramine.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size? ...

    Correct

    • What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size?

      Your Answer: Brewed coffee

      Explanation:

      The caffeine content in brewed coffee is relatively high, with approximately 100 mg per cup. In comparison, tea has a lower caffeine content. Black tea has around 45 mg per cup, while green tea has approximately 25 mg per cup. Instant coffee contains about 60 mg per cup, and a can of Red Bull contains 80 mg of caffeine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Antipsychotic induced dystonia is most common in which of the following groups? ...

    Correct

    • Antipsychotic induced dystonia is most common in which of the following groups?

      Your Answer: Young men

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - This is an example of a verbal fluency test, which assesses a person's...

    Correct

    • This is an example of a verbal fluency test, which assesses a person's ability to generate words within a specific category of starting with a particular letter. The man demonstrated good verbal fluency for words starting with F, but his performance decreased when asked to generate words starting with A. This could indicate a difficulty with cognitive flexibility of retrieval of information.

      For instance, during clinical assessment, a 70-year-old woman is asked to name animals beginning with the letter B, which she does, naming ten words in one minute. She is then asked to name animals beginning with the letter G and replies, goat, giraffe....

      Your Answer: Perseveration

      Explanation:

      To assess recall failure, the clinician typically asks the client to remember and then recall three objects after a delay. In the scenario described, the client’s difficulty cannot be attributed to a failure to maintain attention on the task, as their performance over the previous minute does not support this interpretation. However, the client’s perseveration in providing examples of words beginning with F suggests a possible issue with set-shifting, while expressive dysphasia may be identified through failure in speech of naming of objects during cognitive assessment. Disorientation, on the other hand, is typically evaluated through ten questions at the beginning of a mini-mental state examination of through screening questions during clinical assessment, and refers to a lack of recognition of place, time, of person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision loss accompanied by pain over the last 24 months. She is curious if her use of fluoxetine, which you prescribed for her depression, could be a contributing factor. What is your primary suspicion regarding her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced by the woman are most indicative of optic neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve where it connects to the eye. This typically results in temporary loss of vision in one eye, accompanied by pain during eye movement. Optic neuritis is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. It is unlikely that the woman is experiencing an arterial occlusion, as this would cause permanent and painless vision loss. A pituitary adenoma would affect both eyes and result in permanent vision loss. The possibility of a somatoform disorder is unlikely, as the women’s symptoms align with a recognized medical diagnosis. Endophthalmitis is a serious condition that can cause permanent vision loss and requires immediate medical attention.

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is believed to be the least mature at the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is believed to be the least mature at the time of birth?

      Your Answer: Sense of vision

      Explanation:

      The human visual system is incredibly intricate, but it is not fully developed when a baby is born. Although newborns can perceive shapes by tracking the intersections of light and dark lines, their vision is limited to distinguishing shades of grey. Additionally, their ability to focus is restricted to a range of 8 to 12 inches (20 to 30 cm), resulting in blurry vision. However, within a week of birth, babies born at full term should be able to recognize their mother’s facial expressions.

      The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants

      Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.

      Child Development Milestones:
      4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
      6 weeks Begins social smiling*
      3 months Holds head steady on sitting
      6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
      7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
      9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
      12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
      18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
      2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
      3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
      4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
      5 years Copies a triangle, skips

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What substance acts as a partial agonist on the mu receptor? ...

    Correct

    • What substance acts as a partial agonist on the mu receptor?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      The mu receptor, one of several opioid receptors, is partially activated by buprenorphine. In contrast, opioid antagonists such as naloxone and naltrexone block the receptor.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What type of lesion is most likely to cause bitemporal hemianopia? ...

    Correct

    • What type of lesion is most likely to cause bitemporal hemianopia?

      Your Answer: Pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Bitemporal hemianopia is a condition in which an individual experiences a loss of vision in the outer (temporal of lateral) half of both their left and right visual fields. This condition is typically caused by damage to the optic chiasm.

      Cerebral Dysfunction: Lobe-Specific Features

      When the brain experiences dysfunction, it can manifest in various ways depending on the affected lobe. In the frontal lobe, dysfunction can lead to contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, lack of initiative, Broca’s aphasia, and agraphia (dominant). The temporal lobe dysfunction can result in Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant), homonymous upper quadrantanopia, and auditory agnosia (non-dominant). On the other hand, the non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can lead to anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia. Meanwhile, the dominant parietal lobe dysfunction can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lastly, occipital lobe dysfunction can lead to visual agnosia, visual illusions, and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A child believes that their teacher is actually their parent in disguise. What...

    Correct

    • A child believes that their teacher is actually their parent in disguise. What is the term for this condition?

      Your Answer: Frégoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      Frégoli syndrome is a type of delusional misidentification syndrome where a person believes that a familiar person is taking on the appearance of other people. It is named after Leopold Frégoli, a famous impersonator known for his quick changes. In contrast, Capgras syndrome involves the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter, while Cotard’s syndrome is characterized by nihilistic delusions such as the belief that one is dead. Intermetamorphosis is another delusional misidentification syndrome where a person thinks they can see others physically and physiologically transform into someone else. Finally, the syndrome of subjective doubles involves the belief that another person has become a copy of oneself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      2.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (11/11) 100%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry Of Learning Disability (1/1) 100%
Psychopharmacology (7/7) 100%
Cognitive Assessment (2/2) 100%
Neurological Examination (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (2/2) 100%
Old Age Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
General Adult Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
Passmed