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  • Question 1 - A 30-year old male is taken to the emergency room after suffering a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old male is taken to the emergency room after suffering a blunt trauma to the abdomen. He is complaining of severe abdominal pain, however all his other vital signs remain stable. A FAST scan is performed to assess for hemoperitoneum.

      If hemoperitoneum is present, it is most likely to be observed in which of the following areas?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma (FAST) is an ultrasound protocol developed to assess for hemoperitoneum and hemopericardium. Numerous studies have demonstrated sensitivities between 85% to 96% and specificities exceeding 98%.

      The FAST exam evaluates four regions for pathologic fluid: (1) the right upper quadrant, (2) the subxiphoid (or subcostal) view, (3) the left upper quadrant, and (4) the suprapubic region.

      The right upper quadrant (RUQ) visualizes the hepatorenal recess, also known as Morrison’s pouch, the right paracolic gutter, the hepato-diaphragmatic area, and the caudal edge of the left liver lobe. The probe is positioned in the sagittal orientation along the patient’s flank at the level of the 8 to 11 rib spaces. The hand is placed against the bed to ensure visualization of the retroperitoneal kidney. The RUQ view is the most likely to detect free fluid with an overall sensitivity of 66%. Recent retrospective evidence suggests the area along the caudal edge of the left lobe of the liver has the highest sensitivity, exceeding 93%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Correct

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.

      Which of these anatomic structures is the deepest structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:

      Skin
      Fatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)
      Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)
      Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique muscles
      Rectus abdominis muscle
      Aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis
      Fascia transversalis
      Extraperitoneal fat
      Parietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the...

    Correct

    • Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the gallbladder?

      Your Answer: Neck

      Explanation:

      There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      265.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following anatomic structures will gallstones most likely lodge into, and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anatomic structures will gallstones most likely lodge into, and cause cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Hartmann’s pouch

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s pouch is a diverticulum that can occur at the neck of the gallbladder. It is one of the rarest congenital anomalies of the gallbladder. Hartmann’s gallbladder pouch is a frequent but inconsistent feature of normal and pathologic human gallbladders. It is caused by adhesions between the cystic duct and the neck of the gallbladder. As a result, it is classified as a morphologic rather than an anatomic entity.

      There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following nerves provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior surface of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior surface of the scrotum?

      Your Answer: Branch of the perineal nerve

      Explanation:

      The following nerves provide cutaneous innervation to the scrotum, and other anatomic structures:

      The perineal nerve supplies the muscles in the urogenital triangle, and the skin on the posterior surface of the scrotum (or labia majora).

      The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster muscle, the skin over the anterior surface of the thigh, and the anterolateral surface of the scrotum.

      The ilioinguinal nerve supplies the external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, skin of the upper medial aspect of thigh, the root of the penis and the anterior surface of the scrotum in the male, and the mons pubis and labia majora in the female.

      The posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, or posterior femoral cutaneous nerve, supplies the skin over the lower medial quadrant of the buttock, the inferior skin of the scrotum or labium majus, and the back of the thigh and the upper part of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 63-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting of blood. An...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting of blood. An endoscopy was performed and a peptic ulcer was found to have eroded into an artery nearby.

      Which of the following most likely describes the location of the ulcer?

      Your Answer: The posterior duodenum

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is peptic ulcer disease, particularly gastric and duodenal ulcers. Duodenal ulcers are most commonly associated with bleeding compared with gastric ulcers. Posterior duodenal ulcers are considered to be the most likely to cause severe bleeding because of its proximity to the branches of the gastroduodenal artery (GDA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical...

    Correct

    • When there is the presence of distended and engorged veins in the umbilical area, which of the following portosystemic anastomoses has most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Para-umbilical veins and inferior epigastric vein

      Explanation:

      Caput medusae is a condition that consists of collateral veins radiating from the umbilicus and results from recanalization of the umbilical vein.

      Under normal conditions, the portal venous blood traverses the liver and drains into the inferior vena cava of the systemic venous circulation by way of the hepatic veins. This is the direct route. However, other, smaller communications exist between the portal and systemic systems, and they become important when the direct route becomes blocked. These communications are as follows:

      At the lower third of the oesophagus, the oesophageal branches of the left gastric vein (portal tributary) anastomose with the oesophageal veins draining the middle third of the oesophagus into the azygos veins (systemic tributary).

      Halfway down the anal canal, the superior rectal veins (portal tributary) draining the upper half of the anal canal anastomosis with the middle and inferior rectal veins (systemic tributaries), which are tributaries of the internal iliac and internal pudendal veins, respectively.

      The paraumbilical veins connect the left branch of the portal vein with the superficial veins of the anterior abdominal wall (systemic tributaries). The paraumbilical veins travel in the falciform ligament and accompany the ligamentum teres.

      The veins of the ascending colon, descending colon, duodenum, pancreas, and liver (portal tributary) anastomose with the renal, lumbar, and phrenic veins (systemic tributaries).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is? ...

    Correct

    • The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is?

      Your Answer: Ampulla of Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      Nearly 95% of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube and give rise to fimbrial, ampullary, isthmic, or interstitial tubal pregnancies. The ampulla is the most frequent site, followed by the isthmus. The remaining 5% of non tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ovary, peritoneal cavity, cervix, or prior caesarean scar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 34-year-old man presented to the emergency room after being involved in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man presented to the emergency room after being involved in a road traffic accident. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he was hypotensive and has muffled heart sounds. It was suspected that he has pericardial effusion, so an emergency pericardiocentesis was to be performed.

      In performing pericardiocentesis for suspected pericardial effusion, which of the following anatomical sites are at risk of being punctured?

      Your Answer: 2 cm above the left xiphocostal angle

      Correct Answer: 1 cm below the left xiphocostal angle

      Explanation:

      Pericardiocentesis is a procedure done to remove fluid build-up in the sac around the heart known as the pericardium. The pericardium can be tapped from almost any reasonable location on the chest wall. However, for the usual blind pericardiocentesis, the subxiphoid approach is preferred. Ideally, 2-D echocardiography is used to guide needle insertion and the subsequent path of the needle/catheter.

      In the subxiphoid approach, the needle is inserted 1 cm inferior to the left xiphocostal angle with an angle of 30 degrees from the patient’s chest with a direction towards the left mid-clavicle.

      The fingers may sense a distinct give when the needle penetrates the parietal pericardium. Successful removal of fluid confirms the needle’s position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Through which of the following anatomical structures does an indirect inguinal hernia pass?...

    Correct

    • Through which of the following anatomical structures does an indirect inguinal hernia pass?

      Your Answer: External oblique

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias are subdivided into direct and indirect.

      An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum.

      A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      The deep (internal) inguinal ring is located above and halfway between the pubic tubercle and the anterior superior iliac spine. This serves as the entrance to the inguinal canal. The superficial (external) inguinal ring lies immediately above and medial to the pubic tubercle. This triangular opening is a defect in the external oblique aponeurosis, and forms the exit of the inguinal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in benign prostatic...

    Correct

    • Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in benign prostatic hypertrophy?

      Your Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      Benign enlargement of the prostate is common in men older than 50 years. The cause is possibly an imbalance in the hormonal control of the gland. The median lobe of the gland enlarges upward and encroaches within the sphincter vesicae, located at the neck of the bladder. The leakage of urine into the prostatic urethra causes an intense reflex desire to micturate. The enlargement of the median and lateral lobes of the gland produces elongation and lateral compression and distortion of the urethra so that the patient experiences difficulty in passing urine and the stream is weak. Back-pressure effects on the ureters and both kidneys are a common complication. The enlargement of the uvula vesicae (owing to the enlarged median lobe) results in the formation of a pouch of stagnant urine behind the urethral orifice within the bladder. The stagnant urine frequently becomes infected, and the inflamed bladder (cystitis) adds to the patient’s symptoms.

      In all operations on the prostate, the surgeon regards the prostatic venous plexus with respect. The veins have thin walls, are valveless, and are drained by several large trunks directly into the internal iliac veins. Damage to these veins can result in a severe haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Correct

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.

      Which of these anatomic structures is the most superficial structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: Camper’s fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:

      Skin
      Fatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)
      Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)
      Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique muscles
      Rectus abdominis muscle
      Aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis
      Fascia transversalis
      Extraperitoneal fat
      Parietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 69-year-old man presents with a painful groin swelling on the right side....

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old man presents with a painful groin swelling on the right side. The suspected diagnosis is an inguinal hernia.

      Which of the following examination features make it more likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: It can be controlled by pressure over the deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      The reduced indirect inguinal hernia can be controlled by pressure over the internal ring; a direct inguinal hernia cannot.

      An indirect inguinal hernia can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally, while a direct inguinal hernia can be reduced superiorly then posteriorly.

      An indirect inguinal hernia takes time to reach full size, but a direct inguinal hernia appears immediately upon standing.

      Indirect inguinal hernias are seen as elliptical swelling, while direct inguinal hernias appear as symmetric, circular swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided...

    Correct

    • A 47-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a painful, right-sided groin mass. Medical history reveals a previous appendectomy 10 years prior. On physical examination, the mass can be reduced superiorly. Also, the mass extends to the scrotum. The initial diagnosis is a hernia.

      Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.

      Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.

      Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower...

    Correct

    • A paediatric patient comes to the emergency room with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. The attending physician is considering appendicitis. Inside the operating room, the surgeon asks the medical student to locate the McBurney's point prior to the first incision.

      Which of the following is the surface anatomy of the McBurney's point?

      Your Answer: One-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the appendix is a significant public health problem with a lifetime incidence of 8.6% in men and 6.7% in women, with the highest incidence occurring in the second and third decade of life. While the rate of appendectomy in developed countries has decreased over the last several decades, it remains one of the most frequent emergent abdominal operations. Appendicitis can often result in anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and fever.

      McBurney’s point, which is found one-third of the distance between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus, is often the point of maximal tenderness in a patient with an anatomically normal appendix. A McBurney’s incision is chiefly used for cecostomy and appendectomy. It gives a limited exposure only, and should any doubt arise about the diagnosis, an infraumbilical right paramedian incision should be used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In which part of the gastrointestinal tract is Meckel's diverticulum commonly located? ...

    Correct

    • In which part of the gastrointestinal tract is Meckel's diverticulum commonly located?

      Your Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is the most prevalent congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract, affecting approximately 2% of the general population. Meckel’s diverticulum are designated true diverticula because their walls contain all the layers found in normal small intestine. Their location varies among individual patients, but they are usually found in the ileum within 100 cm of the ileocecal valve.

      Approximately 60% of Meckel’s diverticulum contain heterotopic mucosa, of which over 60% consist of gastric mucosa. Pancreatic acini are the next most common; others include Brunner’s glands, pancreatic islets, colonic mucosa, endometriosis, and hepatobiliary tissues.

      A useful, although crude, mnemonic describing Meckel’s diverticulum is the “rule of twos”: 2% prevalence, 2:1 male predominance, location 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal valve in adults, and half of those who are symptomatic are under 2 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to the regional lymph nodes.

      The lymph from the testes will drain to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Testes are retroperitoneal organs and its lymphatic drainage is to the lumbar and para-aortic nodes along the lumbar vertebrae.

      The scrotum is the one which drains into the nearby superficial inguinal nodes.

      The glans penis and clitoris drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Anterior

      Correct Answer: Posterior

      Explanation:

      The periurethral portion of the prostate gland increases in size during puberty and after the age of 55 years due to the growth of non-malignant cells in the transition zone of the prostate that surrounds the urethra. Most cancers develop in the posterior lobe, and cancers in this location may be palpated during a digital rectal examination (DRE).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26-year old female comes to the Emergency Room with complaints of bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old female comes to the Emergency Room with complaints of bloody stools. She reports that prior to the passage of bloody stools, she experienced a sharp pain during defecation. Medical history reveals that she has been experiencing constipation for the past 2 weeks. After completing her medical history and physical examination, the attending physician gives an initial diagnosis of an anal fissure.

      Which of the following nerves transmit painful sensation from the anus, resulting in the pain associated with anal fissure?

      Your Answer: Superior rectal nerve

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectal nerve

      Explanation:

      A fissure in ano is a tear in the anoderm distal to the dentate line. The pathophysiology of anal fissure is thought to be related to trauma from either the passage of hard stool or prolonged diarrhoea. A tear in the anoderm causes spasm of the internal anal sphincter, which results in pain, increased tearing, and decreased blood supply to the anoderm. The site of the anal fissure in the sensitive lower half of the anal canal, which is innervated by the inferior rectal nerve, results in reflex spasm of the external anal sphincter, aggravating the condition. Because of the intense pain, anal fissures may have to be examined under local anaesthesia.

      The inferior rectal nerve is a branch of the pudendal nerve. This nerve runs medially across the ischiorectal fossa and supplies the external anal sphincter, the mucous membrane of the lower half of the anal canal, and the perianal skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which segment of the colon is most likely to be affected in diverticulitis?...

    Correct

    • Which segment of the colon is most likely to be affected in diverticulitis?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      Diverticulitis refers to inflammation and infection associated with a diverticulum and is estimated to occur in 10% to 25% of people with diverticulosis. Peridiverticular and pericolic infection results from a perforation (either macroscopic or microscopic) of a diverticulum, which leads to contamination, inflammation, and infection. The spectrum of disease ranges from mild, uncomplicated diverticulitis that can be treated in the outpatient setting, to free perforation and diffuse peritonitis that requires emergency laparotomy. Most patients present with left sided abdominal pain, with or without fever, and leucocytosis. The most common location for diverticulitis is the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      4.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen And Pelvis (17/20) 85%
Anatomy (17/20) 85%
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