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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to clinic. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to clinic. She had extensive colitis 10 years ago, which has improved with medical treatment. Last year she had been diagnosed with primary sclerosing cholangitis. Her last colonoscopy was 6 months ago, which detected no active disease, and random biopsies were normal. She is remaining well and asymptomatic.

      When should colonic screening be performed on this patient?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy should be performed annually

      Explanation:

      Colonoscopy screening should begin 10 years after the first diagnosis in ulcerative colitis, given the increased risk for colon cancer. Given that she has developed primary sclerosing cholangitis, her risk of colon cancer is even higher. Colonoscopy screening should occur at 3 year intervals in the second decade, 2 year intervals in the third decade, and 1 year intervals by the first decade, making A the correct answer choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      147.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A young woman complains of constipation and pain on defecation. The pain is...

    Correct

    • A young woman complains of constipation and pain on defecation. The pain is anorectal and a digital rectal examination was impossible due to pain and spasm. What is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of anal fissure include sharp pain in the anal area upon defecation or anal stimulation. It may also cause burning or itching as well as visible fresh blood on the stools or on the toilet paper. It is usually visible upon inspection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34 year-old gentleman presented with 3 months history of abdominal pain, intermittent...

    Correct

    • A 34 year-old gentleman presented with 3 months history of abdominal pain, intermittent diarrhoea, melena and loss of weight. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is characterized by abdominal and pelvic pain, intermittent diarrhoea, loss of weight and tenesmus. Irritable bowel disease is associated either with diarrhoea or constipation and occurs in stressful conditions for the individual. A UTI is characterised by dysuria, fever and lumbar pain. Adenomyosis is characterised by heavy menstrual bleeding and chronic pelvic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. Her inflammatory markers are normal. What is the most likely cause of her diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Bile Acid Malabsorption

      Explanation:

      The question describes a patient who has had an ileal resection. Bile acids are reabsorbed in the distal ileum. Since this has been resected in this patient, one would expect her to have malabsorption of bile acids, causing her diarrhoea. This is a more likely correct answer than a Crohn’s flare, bacterial overgrowth, gastroenteritis, or tropical sprue, given the details included in the question prompt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Barrett's oesophagus is well recognized as a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease. What...

    Correct

    • Barrett's oesophagus is well recognized as a complication of gastroesophageal reflux disease. What is the pathological change that occurs in the above condition?

      Your Answer: Squamous to columnar epithelium

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is characterised by the metaplastic replacement of the normal squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus by columnar epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The digital rectal examination and flexible sigmoidoscopy of a 30-year-old woman are normal....

    Correct

    • The digital rectal examination and flexible sigmoidoscopy of a 30-year-old woman are normal. However, she still complains of recurrent and brief episodes of severe rectal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Proctalgia fugax

      Explanation:

      The digital rectal examination and sigmoidoscopy are normal, a fact that excludes all the other possible diagnoses. Proctalgia fugax is a functional anorectal disorder characterized by severe, intermittent episodes of rectal pain that are self-limiting. The diagnosis of proctalgia fugax requires exclusion of other causes of rectal or anal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old male was admitted with severe central abdominal pain managed as an...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male was admitted with severe central abdominal pain managed as an acute pancreatitis due to his serum amylase being markedly elevated. He is a known epileptic patient and has been on anti-epileptics. What would be the antiepileptic drug responsible for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate/Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Both Sodium valproate and Carbamazepine are correct. These drugs can cause drug induced pancreatitis however more cases have been reported with Sodium valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      103.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4-year-old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer: Sweat chloride test

      Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 22-year-old male presents with loose stools and abdominal pain that is vague...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old male presents with loose stools and abdominal pain that is vague in nature. He previously had an episode of lower abdominal pain that was associated with pyrexia which settled on its own. He has also experienced mild weight loss recently. On examination, he is pale and has an ill defined mass in the right iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s Disease (CD) is an inflammatory bowel disease, the pathogenesis of which is not fully understood. The clinical presentation of CD may be similar to ulcerative colitis (UC), the other most common inflammatory bowel disease. CD mostly affects young adults and adolescents between the ages of 15 and 35. It is typically located in the terminal ileum, but can discontinuously affect the entire gastrointestinal tract and commonly leads to complications such as fistulas, abscesses, and stenosis. Clinical features include diarrhoea, weight loss, and abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), as well as extraintestinal manifestations in the eyes, joints, or skin. It is often difficult to diagnose because there is no confirmatory test. Diagnosis is therefore based on the patient’s medical history, physical examination, lab tests, imaging (e.g., MRI), endoscopy, and serological testing. Acute episodes are treated with corticosteroids, and in severe cases, immunosuppressants may be indicated. Antibiotics and surgical intervention may be needed to help treat complications. Because the entire gastrointestinal tract may be affected, Crohn disease cannot be cured (in contrast to ulcerative colitis). The goal of treatment is thus to avoid the progression and recurrence of inflammatory episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient was admitted due to vomiting for further investigations. He noticed blood...

    Correct

    • A patient was admitted due to vomiting for further investigations. He noticed blood in his vomit and the physicians decided to perform an esophagogastroduodenoscopy which revealed haemorrhage in the lesser curvature of the stomach. Which artery is responsible for the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Right gastric artery

      Explanation:

      The right gastric artery arises from the hepatic artery or the left hepatic artery and supplies the pylorus, traveling along the lesser curvature of the stomach anastomosing with the left gastric artery.
      The pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies mainly the upper and lower duodenum and the head of the pancreas.
      The gastro-omental arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old girl is presented to the OPD with her mother. Her mother...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old girl is presented to the OPD with her mother. Her mother reports that she eats very large portions of food most of the time, but takes diet pills and remains depressed because she thinks she is overweight. However, on general physical examination, she appears to be very thin and her blood pressure is lower than normal. Investigations reveal that she has hypokalaemia. What is this girl most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging in an attempt to stay thin despite eating a lot of food. Frequent vomiting can cause electrolyte imbalance that manifests as hyperkalaemia and may lead to hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 47-year-old man is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is seen in clinic with a 3 month history of chronic epigastric discomfort. The pain comes and goes and radiates to his back and his right shoulder tip at times. It is worse after meals but there is no relieving factor. He feels nauseous most of the time and has foul-smelling stools. He has lost 2 stones in weight. He also complains of intermittent light-headedness. He drinks a bottle of wine on most nights and smokes 20 cigarettes /day.

      On examination, he is thin and looks neglected. His abdomen is soft, but tender on deep palpation in the epigastric area. He has a 2 cm non-tender liver edge. He also has decreased sensation to light touch on both feet.

      Bloods:
      sodium 131 mmol/l
      potassium 4.2 mmol/l
      creatine 64 μmol/l
      amylase 35 U/l
      alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 104 U/l
      alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 121 U/l
      bilirubin 24 μmol/l
      calcium 2.01 mmol/l
      whole cell count (WCC) 12.1 × 109/l
      haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dl
      platelets 462 × 109/l
      abdominal X-ray (AXR) normal
      oesophago-gastro duodenoscopy (OGD) mild gastritis
      Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test negative
      ultrasound abdomen mildly enlarged liver with fatty change
      spleen and kidneys normal
      pancreas partially obscured by overlying bowel gas
      72-h stool fat 22 g in 72 h

      He is referred for a secretin test:
      volume collected 110 ml
      bicarbonate 52 mEq/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide-secreting tumour (VIPoma)

      Correct Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The question describes an alcohol abusing man with chronic epigastric discomfort, radiating into his back, worse with meals, and foul-smelling stools, weight loss, as well as chronic nausea. This is likely, thus chronic pancreatitis due to alcohol abuse. Hepatomegaly and peripheral neuropathy secondary to anaemia support the diagnosis of long term alcohol abuse. Bacterial overgrowth may present with diarrhoea and is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis. Celiac disease is a less likely diagnosis than pancreatitis, and you would also expect mention of diarrhoea. VIPoma would also likely present with diarrhoea. Cecal carcinoma would more than likely present with blood in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      111.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old patient presents with inflammatory bowel disease. 5-ASA would be most appropriate...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with inflammatory bowel disease. 5-ASA would be most appropriate in treating which condition?

      Your Answer: Acute therapy for ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      5-ASA is not an acute treatment; it is for maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis and/or Crohn’s. The most benefit is seen in patients with ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is being investigated for recurrent gastric and duodenal ulceration diagnosed at endoscopy. He has suffered from bouts of abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea although his weight is stable.

      Some of his investigations are outlined below.
      Basal acid secretion 20 mEq/h (1-5)
      Fasting gastrin 200 pg/ml (<100)

      Secretin test:
      Basal gastrin 200 pg/ml
      Post-secretin 500 pg/ml

      Which of the following are responsible for the elevated gastrin levels?

      Your Answer: Gastrinoma

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. The secretin test is a test that can differentiate gastrinoma from other causes of high gastrin levels. Gastrin will rise after secretin injection if the patient has a gastrinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      43.9
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  • Question 15 - While investigating a patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), blood tests reveal a raised...

    Correct

    • While investigating a patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), blood tests reveal a raised level of serum ferritin. What would be the most probable cause for HCC in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is the excessive accumulation of iron in the body mainly involving the liver, pancreas, testes, skin etc. Serum ferritin is high indicating iron overload. Haemochromatosis is a known cause for chronic liver cell disease, cirrhosis and HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 9-year-old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148 mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20 mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?

      Your Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of the following would favour the diagnosis of Crohn's disease on rectal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Patchy inflammation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is patchy inflammation. Superficial ulceration as well as non-patchy inflammation are seen in ulcerative colitis (UC) in the colon and rectum; you would expect to see transmural inflammation in Crohn’s disease and it can be patchy and located anywhere from mouth to anus. Crypt distortion and crypt abscesses are seen in both UC and Crohn’s, however they are more common in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old ex-footballer with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents with epigastric pain. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of peptic ulceration rather than chronic pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Relieved by food

      Explanation:

      Relief of symptoms with food suggests duodenal ulceration, for which the pain gets worse on an empty stomach. In chronic pancreatitis, you would expect worsening of symptoms with food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old male presented with chronic diarrhoea and right lower abdominal pain. On...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male presented with chronic diarrhoea and right lower abdominal pain. On examination he was febrile and there was tenderness over the right lower quadrant and an anal fissure. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his abdominal pain?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

      Explanation:

      From the given answers, IBD and IBS are the causes for chronic diarrhoea. Pyelonephritis and ureteric colic are associated with urinary symptoms. Tenderness of pyelonephritis is at the loin region. Perianal disease is associated with fifty percent of patients with Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 51-year-old man was brought to the Emergency department for loose stools. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man was brought to the Emergency department for loose stools. He was dehydrated, weak and in shock. He had previously been complaining of large stool volumes for a one month period. Stool colour was normal. There was no history of laxative abuse and no significant past medical history.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Correct Answer: VIPoma

      Explanation:

      Given that the patient has had large amount, high volume watery diarrhoea in an acute period of time, from the answer choices given, this narrows the diagnosis down to VIPoma or carcinoid syndrome. You would expect with carcinoid syndrome for there to be periodic episodes of diarrhoea, though, with a description of flushing, additionally, associated with these episodes. Thus, VIPoma is the most likely answer here. VIPomas are known to cause hypokalaemia from this large amount of watery diarrhoea. Stool volume should be > 700 ml/day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      134.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed.

      On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old male presented in the OPD with a complaint of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presented in the OPD with a complaint of abdominal pain and blood in his stools for the last two days. He reports that the stools are black in colour and sometimes accompanied by fresh blood. There is also a history of significant weight loss. Blood tests revealed elevated CA 19-9. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. She admits to 2 or 3 episodes of vomiting blood. The GP feels an epigastric mass.

      There is both a microcytic anaemia and abnormal liver enzymes. Her past history, which may be of importance, includes excess consumption of sherry and spirits, and a 30 pack-year smoking history.

      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Explanation:

      With a clinical history of weight loss, smoking, drinking alcohol, and hematemesis, the most likely answer is gastric carcinoma (also a mass). Based on symptomatology alone this is more likely than gastric lymphoma, as she has many risk factors for adenocarcinoma and/or squamous cell carcinoma. Helicobacter gastritis would not likely present with the severity of symptoms, neither would benign gastric ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old female, with 5 day history of fever and pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female, with 5 day history of fever and pain in the right iliac fossa, presented with acute abdominal pain and rigidity. Past medical, surgical and drug history were unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perforated diverticulum

      Explanation:

      A diverticulum is a sac like protrusion from the colonic wall. Inflammation leads to diverticulitis characterised by abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. In complicated cases. It may lead to perforation, leading to abdominal tenderness, rigidity and guarding. Ischemic colitis presents with sudden onset abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. Intussusception leads to abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and signs of intestinal obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Release is triggered by GI luminal peptides

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. It stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and also aids in gastric motility. It is released in response to the following stimuli: vagal stimulation, antrum distention, hypercalcemia. It is inhibited by the following: presence of acid in stomach, SST, secretion, GIP, VIP, glucagon, calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old man with a long history of heavy alcohol intake is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a long history of heavy alcohol intake is admitted with nausea and frequent vomiting four hours after a meal in a restaurant. During review in the Emergency department he vomits a cupful of blood.

      What is the cause of his haematemesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. Because of the history, that makes this more likely than haemorrhagic gastritis, duodenal ulceration, or oesophagitis (also oesophagitis would not bleed a cupful). Oesophageal varices would present with copious amounts of hematemesis and most likely hemodynamic instability as a result of the amount of blood loss. In Mallory-Weiss tear they are typically presented as a hemodynamically stable patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been receiving parenteral nutrition for 4 months. He has developed a dermatitis and has noticed some loss of hair. Serum biochemistry shows a marginally raised glucose concentration and a lower alkaline phosphatase activity.

      Which of the following is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zinc deficiency

      Explanation:

      Zinc deficiency can present with alopecia, dermatitis, poor growth, increased susceptibility to infection, and cognitive deficiency. Magnesium deficiency can cause fatigue, cramping and an irregular EKG. Copper deficiency can present with fatigue and weakness. Chromium deficiency can present with hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with increasing tiredness, mild upper abdominal discomfort and itching. The GP has arranged some investigations prior to her clinic visit.

      Investigations;
      Hb 13.2 g/dl
      WCC 5.0 x109/l
      PLT 240 x109/l
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 μmol/l
      HbA1c 8.3%
      Anti-Smooth muscle antibody positive
      Immunoglobulins increased

      Which of the following would be the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver function testing

      Explanation:

      The key to this question is anti-smooth muscle antibodies. This is a finding of autoimmune hepatitis, which can be seen in type I diabetics. This also fits with her clinical picture. If you know these two facts, you should get every question correct regarding autoimmune hepatitis. Liver function testing is the best answer, then and should be elevated to indicate inflammation of the liver. Hepatic US, CK, thyroid function testing, short synacthen test are not helpful in the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 24-year-old waiter applies for a job at a cafeteria. He gives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old waiter applies for a job at a cafeteria. He gives a history of having had enteric fever 2 years ago. Which of the following investigations is most likely to indicate a chronic carrier status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Culture of intestinal secretions

      Explanation:

      The chronic asymptomatic carrier state is thought to be why there is continued appearance of the bacterium in human populations. As shedding of the organism is intermittent and sometimes at low levels, methods to detect it have been limited. The Salmonella typhi may be cultured from intestinal secretions, faeces or urine in chronic carriers and is recommended to confirm the diagnosis. Vi agglutination test can also be high in normal people in areas with typhoid endemic. Full blood count or blood culture would not be helpful to determine carrier status. Widal antigen test is unable to differentiate carriers from people with a hx of prior infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 24-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3-4 hours after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break.

      Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this acute attack of vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph. aureus is the most likely cause. It is found in foods like dairy products, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable ENDOTOXIN (remember this) that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea 1-6 hours after ingestion of contaminated food. B. cereus is classically associated with fried rice being reheated. Salmonella is typical with raw eggs and undercooked poultry. Campylobacter which is most commonly associated with food poisoning, is seen with poultry 50% of the time. Yersinia enterocolitica is seen with raw or undercooked pork, and may be a case presenting with mesenteric adenitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
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  • Question 31 - A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain, especially 30 minutes after eating. This is associated with nausea and belching. She also describes constipation with occasional explosive diarrhoea. The stools are normally hard with mucus and she needs to strain with every motion. Abdominal pain is relieved after defecation but abdominal bloating persists. She wakes up an hour earlier each morning to finish her breakfast in order to prevent vomiting. She has missed work on a few occasions and feels that her weight has fluctuated. Past medical history includes scarlet fever. She is not on any regular medications except intermittent laxatives over the counter. Abdominal examination is normal. Rectal examination reveals an anal fissure.

      Investigation results:
      Haemoglobin (Hb 13.1 g/dl
      White blood count (WBC) 6.0 × 109/l
      Platelets 180× 109/l
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 87 fL
      International normalised ratio (INR) 1.0
      Na+ 136 mmol/l
      K+ 3.9 mmol/l
      Urea 3.7 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70 μmol/l
      Albumin 39 glL
      Liver function test normal
      Anti-endomysial antibody negative
      Thyroid function test normal
      Gastroscopy normal
      Flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy normal
      Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scans are normal

      What is the most likely diagnosis to account for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Overlap irritable bowel syndrome and functional dyspepsia

      Explanation:

      This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, of varying duration. It is a functional, not an organic problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 55-year-old man known with Barrett's oesophagus and oesophagitis now complains of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man known with Barrett's oesophagus and oesophagitis now complains of a six-week history of gradual dysphagia with solids. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the abnormal (metaplastic) change in the mucosal cells lining the lower portion of the oesophagus, from normal stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar epithelium with interspersed goblet cells, normally present only in the colon. This change is considered to be premalignant and is associated with a high incidence of transition to oesophageal adenocarcinoma. Clinical features of carcinoma of the oesophagus include: loss of weight, hoarseness of voice, dysphagia, and cough. Barium swallow and oesophagoscopy with biopsy should be done.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 33 - A 58-year-old male patient complains of emesis, fatigue, palpitations and weight loss. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient complains of emesis, fatigue, palpitations and weight loss. His blood group is type A. Clinical examination revealed an enlarged liver, ascites and a left supraclavicular lump which is palpable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastric carcinoma may present as atypical general symptoms including emesis, fatigue and weight loss. It may also result in anaemia which might be responsible for the palpitations. The left supraclavicular swelling is referring to Virchow’s node, strongly associated with gastric cancer. Ascites and hepatomegaly generally appear late in the course of the disease and Blood group A has been shown to be associated with gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 34 - The tumour suppressor gene is associated with multiple colonic polyps in which of...

    Incorrect

    • The tumour suppressor gene is associated with multiple colonic polyps in which of the following autosomal dominant disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an inherited disorder where patients present with malignancy in their middle age. APC tumour suppressor gene is responsible for this disorder. Other disorders mentioned in the above options do not involve the tumour suppressor gene and are not autosomal dominant disorders.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 35 - A 59-year-old patient presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old patient presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam and sigmoidoscopy showed an ulcer. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion. Celiac disease is not usually associated with bleeding per rectum and it is associated with a reaction to products containing gliadin. Crohn’s disease and UC are inflammatory bowel diseases and on endoscopy, show many other features of inflammation and not just a single ulcer. A patient with IBS will also have bloating and intermittent diarrhoea with constipation.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 36 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gaucher's disease

      Explanation:

      Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 37 - A 75 year male who has been on treatment for joint pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year male who has been on treatment for joint pain for a long period, presented with vomiting and sudden-onset severe epigastric pain for the past 1 hour. He also complained of shoulder tip pain. On examination his abdomen was rigid. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to arrive at a diagnosis at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erect CXR

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis is perforated peptic ulcer. History of possible NSAID/steroid use for joint pain, sudden-onset severe epigastric pain, vomiting and shoulder tip pain, support the diagnosis. Erect CXR will show the air under the diaphragm which is diagnostic.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 38 - From the given responses what is the most characteristic clinical feature of a...

    Incorrect

    • From the given responses what is the most characteristic clinical feature of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perifollicular haemorrhages and hyperkeratosis

      Explanation:

      Scurvy is a state of dietary deficiency of vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Although scurvy is uncommon, it still occurs and can affect adults and children who have chronic dietary vitamin C deficiency. The most common cutaneous findings are follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymosis, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.
      Cheilosis and beefy red tongue are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency and iron deficiency.
      Diarrhoea and delusions are associated with pellagra which is caused by vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency.
      Ocular muscle paralysis and dementia are associated with vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 39 - Cholecystokinin is secreted from: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholecystokinin is secreted from:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: I cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 40 - A 20-year-old female has been referred for investigation of an iron deficiency anaemia....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female has been referred for investigation of an iron deficiency anaemia. Her mother passed away at age 28, due to colonic carcinoma complicating Peutz-Jegher syndrome. Choose the mode of inheritance of Peutz-Jegher syndrome which is most likely.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Peutz-Jegher syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition which is characterised by perioral pigmentation and hamartomas of the bowel. It was initially assumed that these did not predispose to malignancy, but due to recent studies, the opposite is now believed to be true.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old male who has undergone splenectomy for an abdominal trauma presents on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male who has undergone splenectomy for an abdominal trauma presents on the 3rd postoperative day with acute abdominal pain and distension in the upper abdominal area with hypotension. 2 litres of coffee ground fluid was aspirated on insertion of ryles tubes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute gastric dilatation.

      Explanation:

      Acute gastric dilation leading to ischemia of the stomach is an under-diagnosed and potentially fatal event. Multiple aetiologies can lead to this condition, and all physicians should be aware of it. Acute gastric dilation occurs as a result of eating disorders, trauma resuscitation, volvulus of hiatal hernias, medications, electrolyte abnormalities, psychogenic polyphagia, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, and a myriad of other conditions. Without proper and timely diagnosis and treatment, gastric perforation, haemorrhage, and other serious complications can occur.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 42 - A 70-year-old male patient presents with a history hematochezia and rectal tenesmus for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient presents with a history hematochezia and rectal tenesmus for the last six months. What is most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colorectal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with symptoms of possible colorectal adenocarcinoma. When located in the left colon, it typically presents with tenesmus and bleeding. On the right side usually presents with anaemia, weight loss and abdominal pain.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old, heavily alcohol dependent man came to the hospital with bleeding gums...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old, heavily alcohol dependent man came to the hospital with bleeding gums and petechiae upon examination. Which of the following is the likely vitamin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C

      Explanation:

      Vitamin deficiencies can happen in alcoholics due to malabsorption. Vitamin C deficiency or scurvy can result in bleeding gums and early symptoms including body weakness and lethargy. Other vitamin deficiencies can cause the following:
      B1 or thiamine – Wernicke’s encephalopathy
      B12 or cyanocobalamin – spinal cord degeneration
      Vitamin K – anticoagulant effects
      Vitamin E – neuropathies.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 44 - A 25-year-old male had an emergency appendicectomy. His doctor prescribed him prophylactic antibiotics...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male had an emergency appendicectomy. His doctor prescribed him prophylactic antibiotics to avoid infection after the surgery. Which of the following antibiotics is the best choice for post abdominal surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime is the best choice in the case of gut surgery as it is very effective in preventing infections against gut anaerobes, enterococci and coliforms.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic. She was previously treated with omeprazole,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic. She was previously treated with omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori). She remains on PPI therapy but continues to have epigastric discomfort. You suspect she has ongoing H. pylori infection and request a urea breath test to investigate this.

      How long would the patient need to stop her PPI therapy before the urea breath test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      PPI will affect the accuracy of the test. In general, most recommend discontinuing PPI therapy for 2 weeks prior to a urea breath test. PPI’s have an anti-H. pylori effect.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 46 - Which among these medications does NOT cause gastric ulceration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among these medications does NOT cause gastric ulceration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Misoprostol

      Explanation:

      Misoprostol is effective in preventing gastric ulceration since it is a prostaglandin analogue. Celecoxib, being a selective COX-2 inhibitor only elevates risk of ulceration as well as NSAIDs. Renal failure on the other hand results in elevated gastric acid after reducing the breakdown of gastrin.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 47 - A 24-year-old presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. She has also had two recent episodes of loin to groin pain. Her bloods are normal including her inflammatory markers

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Given her history of bowel resections, the most likely answer in this case is short bowel syndrome. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion and less likely. Bacterial overgrowth does not relate to resection history, so unlikely. Celiac disease or a flare of IBD are also less likely than short bowel syndrome in this case, simply given the history. Also her labs are normal making these unlikely. History, history, history!

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old man presents with progressive central abdominal pain and vomiting associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with progressive central abdominal pain and vomiting associated with significant weight loss (five stone in 3 months).He gives a history of binge drinking and depression, and smokes twenty cigarettes per day. Because eating provokes abdominal pain and vomiting, he has eaten virtually nothing for a month. CT scanning of his abdomen showed a normal pancreas but dilated loops of small bowel with a possible terminal ileal stricture. His albumin level was 20 and C-reactive protein level was 50. Which statement is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infliximab should be prescribed as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      Stricturing is associated with Crohn’s disease, and elevated CRP supports this diagnosis in this patient, as well. Infliximab should not yet be started. Acute treatment is steroids (of a flare) however this man needs surgery. Although surgery should be avoided if at all possible in Crohn’s disease, and minimal surgery should occur (resecting as little as possible, given possible need for future resections), including possible stricturoplasty instead of resection. Chronic pancreatitis is unlikely given it would not cause stricture. Patients undergoing surgery should always have informed consent, which always includes risk of a stoma for any bowel surgery. Given the amount of weight he has lost he is at significant risk for refeeding syndrome, which can cause hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia and hypomagnesemia.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 49 - A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of alcohol abuse, appears slightly jaundiced and is dishevelled and unkempt. He was started on an intravenous glucose infusion and diazepam and he symptomatically improved.

      One day later he becomes confused, develops vomiting, diplopia and is unable to stand. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B deficiency

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This presents in a long time alcoholic from vitamin BI deficiency. Symptoms include confusion and confabulation, oculomotor symptoms/signs, and ataxia.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 50 - A thin 18-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the...

    Incorrect

    • A thin 18-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 51 - Which of the following is an appetite stimulant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an appetite stimulant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Neuropeptide Y induces appetite during trials in rats. Other agents mentioned here are either appetite suppressants or have no effect on appetite.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old woman is presenting with diarrhoea and abdominal bloating over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is presenting with diarrhoea and abdominal bloating over the last 4 months. On examination, she has a blistering rash over her elbows. Biochemical investigation showed that she has low serum albumin, calcium and folate concentrations. On jejunal biopsy there is shortening of the villi and lymphocytosis. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 53 - A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests show the following:


      Hb 13.4 g/dl
      Platelets 467 * 109/l
      WBC 8.2 * 109/l
      CRP 89 mg/l

      A diagnosis of ulcerative colitis is suspected. Which part of the bowel is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      The most COMMON site of inflammation from ulcerative colitis is the rectum, making this the correct answer. This is simply a fact you need to memorize. In general, ulcerative colitis only occurs in colorectal regions– nothing in the small bowel (unless there is backwash into the terminal ileum) and nothing further up the GI tract. In Crohn’s it can affect the entire GI tract from mouth to anus.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 54 - Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of insulinoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of insulinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low fasting glucose, high insulin, high C peptide

      Explanation:

      Insulinoma is associated with LOW fasting glucose, HIGH insulin level, and HIGH C peptide. Insulin-abuse or overdose will cause HGH insulin levels and a LOW C peptide. If the C peptide is low, be suspicious.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 55 - Which one of the following is most associated with the development of acute...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is most associated with the development of acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperchylomicronaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperchylomicronaemia is an increase (markedly) in chylomicrons, and this can cause acute pancreatitis, as well as xanthomas. It can be seen in familial lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency, primary type V hyperlipoproteinemia, idiopathic hyperchylomicronaemia, and familial apolipoprotein CII deficiency. Treatment is dietary fat restriction in order to avoid pancreatitis attacks.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 56 - A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain on swallowing. Current medication includes a salbutamol and becotide inhaler, bendrofluazide and amlodipine. What is the most likely cause of the presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      The history gives you a woman who is on inhaled steroid therapy. It is always a good idea for patients to rinse their mouths well after using inhaled steroids. Odynophagia (pain on swallowing) is a symptom of oesophageal candidiasis, which is the most likely answer given the steroids. Typically, you might see this in someone who is immunocompromised (classically, in HIV+ patients).

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 57 - Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum.
      The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
      The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum.
      The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery.
      The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 58 - Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 59 - A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with occasionally severe retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia for both solids and liquids. What would be the best management option if the barium swallow showed a dilated oesophagus which tapers to a fine distal end?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilatation of the LES

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia for both solids and liquids indicates either obstruction or impaired oesophageal peristalsis which is usually due to neuromuscular causes such as achalasia. Achalasia is the failure of smooth muscle fibres to relax, which can cause the lower oesophageal sphincter to remain closed. The lower part of the oesophagus is more narrow than normal and presents as a birds beak appearance on barium swallow. If dysphagia was present only on solid food consumption, a benign or malignant tumour must be suspected.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 60 - In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the...

    Incorrect

    • In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      More than 70% of cases with inflammatory bowel disease are associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis. The most common association is that of ulcerative colitis, in which case it progresses independently.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 61 - A 50-year-old female was admitted to the emergency department with a moderate fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female was admitted to the emergency department with a moderate fever and productive cough. She commonly experiences central chest pain and regurgitation of undigested food particles. She did not suffer from acid reflux. Solid and liquid diet have both been affected for the last 4 months. A CXR showed an air-fluid level behind a normal sized heart. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is aspiration pneumonia due to the retained food in the oesophagus. This is the case with achalasia. There is no acid reflux in this disease. An air fluid level behind the heart also favours achalasia. In hiatus hernia, GORD is usually present with nausea and vomiting. In the case of a pharyngeal pouch being present, halitosis would be evident.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 62 - Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes...

    Incorrect

    • Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 63 - A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of retrosternal chest pain and dysphagia (which is intermittent and unpredictable in nature). When she swallows, food very suddenly 'sticks' in her chest. She is able to clear it when she drinks water, and then can finish the meal without any further incidence. A barium meal shows she has a corkscrew oesophagus. What is the most likely type of dysphagia here?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal spasm

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms observed in this patient are typical of uncoordinated irregular oesophageal peristalsis – this is characteristic of oesophageal spasm. The cork-screw oesophagus is also diagnostic of the condition.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 64 - A woman complains of diarrhoea, experiencing watery stools 10 daily. She also complains...

    Incorrect

    • A woman complains of diarrhoea, experiencing watery stools 10 daily. She also complains of abdominal bloating, cramps, flatulence, and recent weight loss. She has now developed signs of iron deficiency anaemia. What is the most likely cause of her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea, iron deficiency anaemia and folic acid deficiency are suggestive of malabsorption. Malabsorption leads to a decrease in the solid content of the stools resulting in diarrhoea. Decrease in the absorption of folic acid causes folic acid deficiency, and iron deficiency in the body leads to iron deficiency anaemia.
      Jejunal villous atrophy is characterized with pain and weight loss as well, which this patient does not have.
      A patient with increased catabolism has sudden weight loss along with deficiencies of nutrients.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 65 - A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome dyspepsia for the past six months which has not settled with proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. During the review of his systems he also reports passing 6-7 watery stools per day. An OGD 3 weeks ago showed gastric erosions and ulcers.

      Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting gastrin

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 66 - A 40-year-old lady who underwent a recent subtotal gastrectomy for peptic ulcer disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old lady who underwent a recent subtotal gastrectomy for peptic ulcer disease has now developed anaemia with a haemoglobin of 6.4, tiredness, fatigue and loss of vibration sensation in both legs. What is the underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vit B12 needs intrinsic factor to be absorbed, which is secreted in the stomach. Its deficiency is characterised by macrocytic anaemia with peripheral neuropathy.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 67 - A 50-year-old male is awaiting an anterior resection of rectum. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is awaiting an anterior resection of rectum. Which of the following is the most common postoperative complication of the above surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      The most frequent postoperative surgical complications after colorectal resections are surgical site infection, anastomotic leakage, intra-abdominal abscess, ileus and bleeding. Among them surgical site infection is the most common post-operative complication. Being a clean-contaminated procedure, there is contamination of both the peritoneal cavity and the surfaces of the surgical wound which leads to infections.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 68 - A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily diarrhoea and malaise. Blood testing reveals folate and iron deficiency. There is also mild hypocalcaemia on biochemistry screening.

      She has type-1 diabetes of 10 years' duration and is stable on a basal bolus insulin regimen, otherwise her past medical history is unremarkable.

      Which of these antibody tests is most specific for making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of celiac disease as an aetiology. The antibody that is used primarily to suggest this diagnosis is anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. You can also check anti-gliadin and anti-endomyseal antibodies, although anti-TTG antibodies are now the preferred test. To get an official diagnosis you must have a tissue diagnosis (biopsy). Anti-smooth muscle antibodies would be seen in autoimmune hepatitis. Anti-thyroid antibodies are not at all related to this, and are associated with thyroid. Anti-nuclear antibodies are non-specific.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 69 - In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Urobiligen is produced by the action of bacteria on bilirubin in the intestine. As a reminder, unconjugated bilirubin becomes conjugated in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin goes through enterohepatic circulation. About half of the urobiligen is reabsorbed and excreted by the kidneys in the urine. The rest is converted to stercobilinogen –> stercobilin, which is excreted in stool, giving it its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 70 - A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This positive result has persisted for more than six months. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) is negative. HBV DNA is negative. Her liver function tests are all entirely normal.

      Which of the following options would be the best for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antiviral therapy but monitor serology

      Explanation:

      Again, remember the Hepatitis B serologies: In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, + anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. IN THIS CASE, the person is HBsAg+ for 6 months and everything else is negative, normal transaminase. They do not need antiviral therapy, but their serology should be monitored serially. There would be no reason to do a liver biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old man who is admitted with bright red haematemesis, which occurred after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is admitted with bright red haematemesis, which occurred after a bout of vomiting. He had been out with friends on a stag party and consumed 12 pints of beer.

      Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy proves unremarkable and haemoglobin (Hb) is stable at 12.5 g/dl the morning after admission, there is no sign of circulatory compromise. There have been no previous similar episodes.

      Which of the following stems represents the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send home

      Explanation:

      This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. In Mallory-Weiss tear, they typically present as a hemodynamically stable patient after a night of binge drinking and excessive resultant vomiting. Given his EGD did not show any other pathology and he is now stable, he can be discharged home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 72 - A 44-year-old woman was admitted with dull retrosternal chest pain. History reveals the...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman was admitted with dull retrosternal chest pain. History reveals the pain has been present for two weeks. Clinical examination and ECG, however, show nothing interesting. CXR shows an air-fluid level behind the heart. Which hernia would explain this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hiatal

      Explanation:

      A hiatal hernia may be asymptomatic, however classically it presents on CXR with a very characteristic air-fluid level behind the heart. If pain is present, PPIs can be administered. If pain is persistent, surgical intervention should be considered to ameliorate the risk of strangulation. There are two types of hiatal hernias; sliding or Para oesophageal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 73 - A 27-year-old patient presents to the OPD with a history of longstanding constipation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient presents to the OPD with a history of longstanding constipation, blood on the side of stool and extremely painful defecation. Digital rectal examination also results in pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a longitudinal tear of the perianal skin distal to the dentate line, often due to increased anal sphincter tone. Anal fissures are classified according to aetiology (e.g., trauma or underlying disease) or duration of disease (e.g., acute or chronic). They are typically very painful and may present with bright red blood per rectum (haematochezia). Anal fissures are a clinical diagnosis based on history and examination findings. Management is primarily conservative, and includes stool softeners, analgesia, and possible local muscle relaxation; because of the risk of incontinence, surgical intervention is a last resort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 74 - A 69-year-old man on the cardiology ward who is hypotensive, and tachycardic is...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man on the cardiology ward who is hypotensive, and tachycardic is having profuse melaena. He was commenced on dabigatran 150mg bd by the cardiologists 48 hours earlier for non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Following appropriate resuscitation which of the following treatments is most likely to improve his bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idarucizumab (Praxbind)

      Explanation:

      Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a newer antidote for dabigatran, the first of its kind. It is a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds dabigatrin with a higher affinity than thrombin. It is very expensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 75 - A 19-year-old male presents with a 1-year history of diarrhoea as well as...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a 1-year history of diarrhoea as well as abdominal discomfort. He has 10 episodes of loose stools per day and 3 episodes of loose stools per night. He reports weight loss in the past few months. On examination of the abdomen, tenderness was present in the right lower quadrant. Endoscopy revealed cobblestone mucosa in the ileum. Which of the following conditions is he most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's Disease

      Explanation:

      Cobblestone mucosa is characteristic of Crohn’s Disease. It is not a feature of any of the other options mentioned. Crohn’s disease is a condition of IBD (Inflammatory Bowel Disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 76 - A 55-year-old man attends follow-up for liver cirrhosis, which reveals a large dominant...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man attends follow-up for liver cirrhosis, which reveals a large dominant nodule in the right lobe of liver on CT Scan. Which tumour marker would most likely be elevated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha feto-protein (AFP)

      Explanation:

      A considerably increased serum AFP is characteristic of hepatocellular cancer. A distinct nodule for cirrhotic patients should be investigated to rule out hepatocellular cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 77 - Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastrin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amino acids

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released from G cells in the antrum of the stomach after a meal. It stimulates parietal cells to release HCl. Gastrin is stimulated by a number of things: antrum distention, vagal stimulation, peptides (especially amino acids) in the stomach, hypercalcemia. Gastrin release is inhibited by acid, SST, GIP, VIP, secretin, glucagon, and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 78 - A 30-year-old previously well male presented with dysuria and lower abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old previously well male presented with dysuria and lower abdominal pain. He also complained of passage of air bubbles when he urinated. His urine sample had faecal matters. The abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Passage of faecal matters in the urine is suggestive of a fistula. Crohn’s disease is the most common cause of an ileovesical fistula. The diagnostic features of a fistula to the urinary system are pneumaturia, fecaluria, and recurrent or persistent urinary tract infections. Cystoscopy will confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 79 - A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes.

      Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 80 - A 28-year-old woman is investigated for bloody diarrhoea which started around six weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is investigated for bloody diarrhoea which started around six weeks ago. She is currently passing 3-4 loose stools a day which normally contain a small amount of blood. Other than feeling lethargic she remains systemically well with no fever or significant abdominal pain. A colonoscopy is performed which shows inflammatory changes in the ascending colon consistent with ulcerative colitis. Bloods show the following:


      Hb: 14.2 g/dl
      Platelets: 323 * 109/l
      WBC: 8.1 * 109/l
      CRP: 22 mg/l

      What is the most appropriate first-line medication to induce remission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      Given she is not showing signs of systemic illness, you do not need to treat for an acute flair (which would be steroids), but you need to put her on maintenance medication. Oral ASA would be the best option for this, it is first line. You cannot give rectal ASA because the location of her disease is in the ascending colon and the enema will not reach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 81 - A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. She was given lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 7 days.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate way of determining the successful eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Urea breath test is the most sensitive test to determine if there has been RESOLUTION/ERADICATION of the infection with H. pylori. The best test for initial diagnosis would be EGD with biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 82 - A 50-year-old man undergoes a colonoscopy due to the finding of blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man undergoes a colonoscopy due to the finding of blood in his stools. The colonoscopy revealed four polyps which were variable in size from one at 0.5cm, 2 at approximately 1.5cm and one at 2 cm.

      When should this patient have a follow up colonoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      According to the British Society of Gastroenterology guidelines – this patient has 3-4 adenomas with 3 of them > 1 cm in size. This places him at medium risk and the recommendation is for a 3-year follow up period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 83 - A 45-year-old female develops profuse watery diarrhoea with lower abdominal pain seven days...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female develops profuse watery diarrhoea with lower abdominal pain seven days after undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomembranous colitis

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly. This woman would have received antibiotics prophylactically before her surgery, predisposing her to a possible c difficile infection. This is a much better answer choice than pseudo obstruction, abdominal sepsis, bile acid diarrhoea, and campylobacter gastroenteritis simply based on history of present illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 84 - A west Indian man complains of limb and abdominal pain. He is also...

    Incorrect

    • A west Indian man complains of limb and abdominal pain. He is also anaemic and has frequent infections, which precipitate these symptoms. On examination, his spleen is not palpable and he has a mild jaundice. What is your most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell disease (SCD) and its variants are genetic disorders resulting from the presence of a mutated form of haemoglobin, haemoglobin S (HbS). This leads to a rigid, sickle-like shape of red blood cells under certain circumstances which can result in attacks of pain (sickle cell crisis), anaemia, swelling in the hands and feet, bacterial infections and stroke. Anaemia and jaundice happen due to insufficient healthy red blood cell capacity and increased breakdown of haem groups by the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 85 - A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with a history of alcohol induced liver disease is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. He has developed tense ascites again and a plan is made to site an ascitic drain. His renal function after 2 days is as follows:


      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l
      Urea 12.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 205 µmol/l

      Which of the following pathophysiological changes is most likely to be responsible for the declining renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splanchnic vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Hepatorenal syndrome is renal vasoconstriction that cannot overcome the effects of splanchnic vasodilation. Vasoactive mediators cause this splanchnic vasodilation, reducing SVR, which is sensed by the juxtaglomerular apparatus, activating the RAAS system, leading to renal vasoconstriction. However, the overall splanchnic vasodilation effect is greater than this renal vasoconstriction effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 86 - A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic complaining of passing faeces per urethra. Cystoscopy confirms a fistula between his bladder and bowel.

      Which treatment is most likely to be effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: surgery

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for a colovesicular fistula is surgery. This is the only definitive treatment. If the patient is a poor surgical candidate, there can be an attempt to manage them non-operatively, but this is absolutely NOT the MOST EFFECTIVE therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 87 - A kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) ultrasound for a hypertensive man with a...

    Incorrect

    • A kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) ultrasound for a hypertensive man with a BP of 160/90 mmHg and proteinuria++ revealed a decrease in size of the kidneys with smooth borders and normal pelvicalyceal system. What is the cause of hypertension in the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Causes of hypertension in bilateral renal artery stenosis are as follows: 90% probable cause is atherosclerosis with manifestations of CAD, TIA or stroke. The other less common cause is fibromuscular dysplasia that includes carotid and vertebral artery with manifestations of headache, TIA, and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 88 - A 53-year-old woman presents with upper GI haemorrhage. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with upper GI haemorrhage. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which she is managed with low dose prednisolone, diclofenac and codeine phosphate.

      On examination in the Emergency ward her BP is 90/60 mmHg, pulse 100/min. You fluid resuscitate her and her BP improves to 115/80 mmHg, with a pulse of 80/min.

      Investigations;
      Hb 10.4 g/dl
      WCC 6.1 x109/l
      PLT 145 x109/l
      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Creatinine 180 μmol/l

      ECG - Lateral ST depression , Upper GI endoscopy reveals a large bleeding ulcer on the posterior aspect of the duodenum. It cannot be easily reached with the endoscope, and you decide to attempt embolization.

      Which of the following is the artery that should be targeted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior Superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The most common location for a duodenal ulcer bleed is the posterior duodenum (remember: posterior bleeds, anterior perforates). The perfusion to this area is most specifically from the posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

      The anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the anterior region. The gastroepiploic artery supplies mostly the stomach. The splenic artery goes, obviously, toward the spleen, in the other direction. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the celiac artery, and it’s branches are the anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 89 - A 45-year-old male complains of abdominal pain and loose stools. On endoscopy, multiple...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of abdominal pain and loose stools. On endoscopy, multiple ulcers were seen from the oesophagus until the stomach. What will be the next best investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum gastrin estimation

      Explanation:

      Serum gastrin level will helps in the diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, which is characterised by a  history of recurrent and multiple gastric ulcers, due to increase gastrin secretion by the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 90 - Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In spontaneous bacterial peritonitis cefotaxime appears to be a useful antibiotic

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone has been shown to have no effect on the mechanisms of portal hypertension. Also, chronic use of propranolol can reduce the risk of variceal bleeding. The banding of large varices has been shown to be effective, too. Octreotide and terlipressin are also both used to prevent secondary haemorrhage. Cefotaxime is the most commonly used cephalosporin when treating spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Spironolactone helps to combat secondary hyperaldosteronism which is related to liver failure. It also helps to treat salt and water retention, which both contribute to portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 91 - Deposition of macrophages containing PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff) granules were found in a jejunal...

    Incorrect

    • Deposition of macrophages containing PAS (Periodic acid-Schiff) granules were found in a jejunal biopsy of a 45-year-old man complaining of indigestion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whipple's disease

      Explanation:

      Whipple’s disease is a rare, systemic infectious disease caused by the bacterium Tropheryma whipplei. It primarily causes malabsorption but may affect any part of the body including the heart, brain, joints, skin, lungs and the eyes. Weight loss, diarrhoea, joint pain, and arthritis are common presenting symptoms, but the presentation can be highly variable and approximately 15% of patients do not have these classic signs and symptoms. Whipple’s disease is significantly more common in men, with 87% of the patients being male. Diagnosis is made by biopsy, usually by duodenal endoscopy, which reveals PAS-positive (periodic acid schiff) macrophages in the lamina propria containing non-acid-fast gram-positive bacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 92 - A 60-year-old male has been taken to the doctor with dysphagia and pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male has been taken to the doctor with dysphagia and pain when swallowing. A barium meal shows he has gross dilation of the oesophagus, with a smooth narrowing at the lower end. Choose the single most likely cause of his symptoms.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Finding it difficult to swallow both food and drink with a narrow oesophagus is consistent with a diagnosis of achalasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 93 - A 28-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal bloating and flatulence. Clinical examination is unremarkable. Faecal occult bloods are negative and haematological and biochemical investigations are unremarkable.

      Which of the following is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet

      Explanation:

      The best next step is to try a dairy-free diet, many patients may develop this in their lifetime. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion, and one would need to rule lactose intolerance out as a potential aetiology first. She is only 28, and without overt bleeding or signs/sxs/labs suggestive of obstruction or inflammation; colonoscopy, flex sig and a barium enema are not indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 94 - A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified.

      Investigations reveal:
      Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l
      Bilirubin 78 μmol/l
      Albumin 41g/l

      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 95 - A 76-year-old woman is admitted with a productive cough and pyrexia. Chest x-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman is admitted with a productive cough and pyrexia. Chest x-ray shows a pneumonia and she is commenced on intravenous ceftriaxone. Following admission a stool sample is sent because of diarrhoea. This confirms the suspected diagnosis of Clostridium difficile diarrhoea and a 10-day course of oral metronidazole is started. After 10 days her diarrhoea is ongoing but she remains clinically stable. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral vancomycin for 14 days

      Explanation:

      When a patient fails treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl) treatment, the next course of action is to change to oral vancomycin, which is shown to be effective in the treatment of c diff colitis. Oral rifampicin is not a treatment for c diff. Oral metronidazole is not resolving her symptoms so is not the correct answer. clindamycin is a cause of c diff colitis, not a treatment. IV Vanc is not active in the gut so is not the treatment; oral is active in the gut.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 96 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. He has been passing blood mixed with diarrhoea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication.

      On examination he is pyrexial and clinically dehydrated. Cardiorespiratory and abdominal examinations are normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter infection

      Explanation:

      The patient has bloody diarrhoea that sounds like a food poisoning in the clinical scenario. Campylobacter is the most common cause of this in the United Kingdom. This is then followed by Salmonella and Shigella. The symptoms are usually self limiting. This is more likely to be bacterial from the food than a viral gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 97 - A 53-year-old male underwent a partial gastrectomy 15 years ago for a complicated...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male underwent a partial gastrectomy 15 years ago for a complicated peptic ulcer. Which of the following elements may be deficient in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      The proper gastric acidity is required to transform iron from ferric to ferrous state in order to be absorbable. Even partial gastrectomy may cause dumping syndrome. Malabsorption is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 98 - A 37-year-old woman known with ulcerative colitis is referred with a microcytic anaemia....

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman known with ulcerative colitis is referred with a microcytic anaemia. Blood tests reveal the following results:
      Hb 88 g/L (120-160)
      WCC 3.6 ×109/L (4-11)
      Platelets 222 ×109/L (150-400)
      MCV 70 fL (80-96)
      Haptoglobins <0.04 g/L (0.13-1.63)
      Lactate dehydrogenase 850 U/L (100-250)
      Bilirubin 68 µmol/L (1-22)
      Alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L (45-105)
      ALT 23 U/L (5-40)
      Which investigation would confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct Coombs' test

      Explanation:

      This a case of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia which is a rare complication of the less used treatment, salazopyrine, used for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). A direct Coombs’ test looks for erythrocytes already coated with antibody, whereas the indirect test is used to detect potential red cell antibody interactions floating around in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 99 - An 18-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 100 - A 35-year-old alcoholic presented with epigastric pain radiating backward. His pain was relieved...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old alcoholic presented with epigastric pain radiating backward. His pain was relieved with opioid analgesics and anti PUD medications, however after 1 week he developed a fever with a similar kind of abdominal pain to that of his initial presentation. US abdomen shows a fluid collection. The most likely site for the fluid collection would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesser sac

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis in this case is acute pancreatitis, which typically presents with severe abdominal pain and vomiting, along with deranged LFTs and raised serum amylase. It makes a boundary wall for the lesser sac and therefore the most likely site of fluid collection would be in the lesser sac.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 101 - A 72-year-old male presents complaining of having intermittent trouble with swallowing. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents complaining of having intermittent trouble with swallowing. He has also been regurgitating stale food material. He sometimes wakes up in the middle of the night feeling like he is suffocating. Choose the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      In benign stricture, oesophageal carcinoma, and systemic sclerosis, there is persistent dysphagia (rather than intermittent). In oesophageal spasm, there is no regurgitation of stale food material. The symptoms described are consistent with pharyngeal pouch.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 102 - From the list of options, choose the least useful therapy in preventing oesophageal...

    Incorrect

    • From the list of options, choose the least useful therapy in preventing oesophageal variceal bleeding in portal hypertension.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Variceal sclerotherapy

      Explanation:

      Selective beta blockade and nitrates help to reduce portal pressure and therefore reduce the risk of bleeding (as does banding). Moreover, sclerotherapy, despite its use, has not actually been shown to reduce the risk of bleedings as primary prevention – however, it may reduce the risk of rebleeding after an index bleed. The mortality of variceal bleedings is known to be 50% at each episode.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 103 - A 24-year-old woman who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus, presents with a three month history of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss. She has tried excluding gluten from her diet for the past 4 weeks and feels much better. She requests to be tested so that a diagnosis of coeliac disease can be confirmed. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing

      Explanation:

      The patient likely has celiac’s disease, but if she has been avoiding gluten, a biopsy may be negative. Even though a biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis, she will need to re-introduce gluten into her diet prior to undergoing the biopsy.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 104 - All of the following statements regarding iron metabolism are correct EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding iron metabolism are correct EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In iron deficiency anaemia total iron binding capacity and transferrin saturation will both be decreased

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is characterised by decreased iron stores, however there is increased iron binding capacity. Transferrin is the iron transporting protein. Because of the decreased presence of iron in blood, the transferrin saturation is decreased. Ferritin is an iron storage protein that is affected according to the iron stores but its also an acute phase reactant and levels can be effected by other conditions. Each unit of packed RBCs transfused to an adult contains 200 ml of RBCs and 200mg of iron. Only 5-10% of dietary iron is absorbed in the portal circulation which can be increased by the intake of vitamin C, animal foods and amino acids.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 105 - A 29-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. Full...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. Full blood count and viscosity were normal. Flexible sigmoidoscopy was unremarkable.

      What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-fibre diet

      Explanation:

      This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, with various durations. It is a functional, not organic, problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms. Full colonoscopy is not warranted at this time, neither is a barium enema. A wheat-free diet is not likely to help as there is no evidence they have an allergy to this.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 106 - A 50-year-old female known with diabetes visited the OPD with a tender lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female known with diabetes visited the OPD with a tender lump near her anal opening. She says she also has fever. Which of the following management options should be recommended to the patient in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The lump near the anal opening is an anal abscess that should be treated via incising and draining it in order to cure the fever the patient has. Antibiotics will then be given in order to prevent any further infections.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 107 - A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with...

    Incorrect

    • A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 108 - From the following options, choose the one which is not a cause of...

    Incorrect

    • From the following options, choose the one which is not a cause of liver cirrhosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis is a cause of portal hypertension and periportal fibrosis – it is, however, not a cause of cirrhosis. The main causes of cirrhosis include: alcohol and hepatitis B, C, and D. Autoimmune causes include: both primary and secondary biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hepatitis. There are a number of inherited conditions which cause cirrhosis, such as hereditary hemochromatosis, Wilson’s disease, Alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency, galactosaemia glycogen storage disease, and cystic fibrosis. Additionally, there are also vascular causes, such as hepatic venous congestion, Budd-Chiari syndrome, and veno-occlusive disease. Intestinal bypass surgery has also been implicated as a causative factor for cirrhosis.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 109 - Which of the following options is true regarding H. pylori bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options is true regarding H. pylori bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the cause of >60% of gastric ulceration

      Explanation:

      It is the cause of gastric ulcers in more than 60% of the cases. It is a gram negative bacteria and does not cause oesophageal carcinoma.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 110 - Which of the following stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Secretin stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas and liver. VIP induces relaxation of the stomach and gallbladder, secretion of water into pancreatic juice/ bile, and inhibits gastric acid secretion/absorption. CCK classically stimulates gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. Gastrin stimulates the secretion of HCl by parietal cells in the stomach. Motilin, as the name suggests, increases motility.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 111 - A 33-year-old man with a known history of alcoholic liver disease is reviewed...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man with a known history of alcoholic liver disease is reviewed following a suspected oesophageal variceal haemorrhage. He has been resuscitated and intravenous terlipressin has been given. His blood pressure is now 104/60 mmHg and his pulse is 84/min. What is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic variceal band ligation

      Explanation:

      The correct course of action after giving terlipressin and resuscitating with IV fluids is to perform an EGD with endoscopic variceal band ligation. According to NICE: ‘Offer endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices. There are serious complications of a TIPS procedure and it is not the first line treatment.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 112 - Which is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Hereditary non-polyposis syndrome (HNPCC) is the most common type of inherited colorectal cancer. It often presents in younger and younger generations down a family. FAP presents with 100’s-1000’s of polyps and is less common. Li-Fraumeni syndrome and Fanconi syndrome are rare. For Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, the thing you will look for in the question stem is discoloured spots on the lips, this is classic.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 113 - A 46-year-old alcoholic, with a past history of gallstones, presented in a critical...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old alcoholic, with a past history of gallstones, presented in a critical condition with complaints of severe abdominal pain which radiated backward, vomiting, dehydration and profuse sweating. He was tachycardic and hypotensive. What will be the first investigation to be performed in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum lipase

      Explanation:

      This patient is suffering from pancreatitis. Points favouring pancreatitis includes alcoholism, past history of gallstones and state of shock. Serum lipase and amylase should be performed to rule out the disease.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 114 - A 31-year-old woman presents with complaints concerning her bowel habits. She claims that...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presents with complaints concerning her bowel habits. She claims that occasionally she sees blood in her stools but she's more concerned about having chronic abdominal and pelvic pain, tenesmus and intermittent diarrhoea. What would be the most probable cause of her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) includes both ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. Both of them present with similar symptomatology including diarrhoea, fatigue, abdominal and pelvic pain, blood in the stools, weight loss and occasional fever. In diverticulosis, symptoms are less profound with alternating diarrhoea and constipation.
      UTIs might produce abdominal or pelvic pain but they do not interfere with the quality of the stools.
      Adenomyosis affects the uterus and presents with mainly menstrual complaints.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 115 - A 36-year-old man with diabetes is referred with abnormal liver biochemistry. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with diabetes is referred with abnormal liver biochemistry. Which of the following is in keeping with a diagnosis of haemochromatosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transferrin saturation 78% (20-50)

      Explanation:

      A high transferrin saturation is seen in hemochromatosis, as well as a high iron level (>30), a high ferritin level, and a LOW TIBC (<20). Think of it like the opposite findings of iron deficiency anaemia which is a low iron, low ferritin, high TIBC.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 116 - A 62-year-old woman with scleroderma and Raynaud's phenomenon complains of weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with scleroderma and Raynaud's phenomenon complains of weight loss and has been referred for an opinion. Gastrointestinal associations of progressive systemic sclerosis include which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal stricture

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal stricture is a complication of systemic sclerosis, think of the oesophagus as sclerosing (fibrosing) leading to stricture and you never forget. Based on the clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis this is more likely than pancreatic dysfunction, PSC, lymphoma, or diverticulitis. Additionally, CREST syndrome stands for: calcinosis cutis, Raynaud’s phenomenon (which the patient has), oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias), this is a form of systemic sclerosis you should be familiar with.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 117 - Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is most suggestive of Wilson's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced serum caeruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      In Wilson’s disease, serum caeruloplasmin is decreased. Skin pigmentation is not increased, but may become jaundiced. 24 hour urine copper excretion is increased. Hepatic copper concentration is increased. Serum copper level is also increased. Key point: high copper. Remember Kayser-Fleisher rings for the eyes in Wilson’s disease.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 118 - A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents with left-sided lower abdominal pain. He is obese and admits to a dislike of high fibre foods. The pain has been grumbling for the past couple of weeks and is partially relieved by defecation. He has suffered intermittent diarrhoea.
       
      Blood testing reveals a neutrophilia, and there is also a microcytic anaemia. Barium enema shows multiple diverticula, more marked on the left-hand side of the colon.
       
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Given that he has diverticula in the clinical scenario combined with his presenting symptoms, it is likely that he has diverticular disease. A low fibre diet would support this diagnosis. Acute diverticulitis would require treatment with antibiotics. Depending on the severity (Hinchey classification) would determine if he needs oral or IV antibiotics, hospital admission or outpatient treatment. Sometimes abscesses or micro perforations occur, which typical require drainage and possibly surgical intervention. Diverticular disease is clearly a better answer than other possible answer choices, simply based on the symptoms presented in the prompt (and mention of low fibre).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 119 - The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett's oesophagus is approximately:...

    Incorrect

    • The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett's oesophagus is approximately:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50 - 100 times risk

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the transformation of the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophagus to columnar, intestinal type epithelium. It is often seen in patients with reflux and there is a 50-100 fold increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 120 - A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3 month history of colicky abdominal pain after eating, and diarrhoea. She has lost 7 kg in weight over the last few months. A recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy were normal. Her past medical history includes angina and a right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan.

      right carotid endarterectomy at the age of 62 years. Her current medication includes aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and losartan.
      Blood tests revealed:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 118 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 12.3 x 109/l
      Platelets 210 x 109/l
      Na+ 133 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 8.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 134 mmol/l

      Select the most appropriate further investigations.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is 74 years old. She has had a recent gastroscopy and colonoscopy. She has a history of angina and a right CEA. She is having colicky abdominal pain after meals and weight loss, which points to a possible diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia. Thus, you would want to do a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen to look for this. A 24 hour cardiac monitor would also be helpful to look for any abnormal rhythm that could be a potential aetiology of her disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (17/22) 77%
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