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  • Question 1 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Ventral primary ramus of C7

      Correct Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the last 10 days. He undergoes a CT scan which reveals a lesion in his frontal lobe, which, after a biopsy, is found to be formed by granulation tissue with collagenisation, gliosis and oedema. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergillosis

      Correct Answer: Chronic brain abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. In a CT scan, an abscess appears as an oedematous mass with ring enhancement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      163.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor,...

    Correct

    • After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor, superficial injuries. 2 hours later, she becomes unconscious and a CT scan reveals a convex, lens-shaped haemorrhage over the right parietal region. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Epidural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Epidural haematomas are usually caused by arterial bleeding, classically due to damage to the middle meningeal artery by a temporal bone fracture. Symptoms develop within minutes to several hours after the injury and consist of increasing headache, decreased level of consciousness, hemiparesis and pupillary dilation with loss of light reactivity. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for several years. She recently suffered from a focal seizure for the first time a few days ago. A CT scan shows a mass in the left hemisphere of the brain. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are a common benign intracranial tumour, and their incidence is higher in women between the ages of 40-60 years old. Many of these tumours are asymptomatic and are diagnosed incidentally, although some of them may have malignant presentations (less than 2% of cases). These benign tumours can develop wherever there is dura, over the convexities near the venous sinuses, along the base of the skull, in the posterior fossa and, within the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Correct

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      155.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?

      Your Answer: Pupil diameter is determined by the balance between parasympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and sympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle.

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Low-grade astrocytoma

      Correct Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      100.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?...

    Correct

    • With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?

      Your Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed

      Explanation:

      Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      The brain has a high lipid content and typically undergoes liquefaction with ischaemic injury, because it contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased...

    Incorrect

    • When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)?

      Your Answer: Broca’s area

      Correct Answer: Supplementary motor area

      Explanation:

      Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) increases in the superior speech cortex (supplementary motor area) during periods of silent counting, whereas speaking aloud will do so in the motor cortex and medial temporal lobe, along with the superior speech cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      85.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?

      Your Answer: Pain sensation

      Correct Answer: Fine touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Gracile nucleus

      Explanation:

      The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.

      The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right postcentral gyrus

      Correct Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      123
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is: ...

    Correct

    • A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is:

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain, activating dopamine receptors. It is also a neurohormone released from the hypothalamus. It plays an important role in the reward system. It is believed that dopamine provides a teaching signal to parts of the brain responsible for acquiring new motor sequences (behaviours), by activation of dopamine neurons when an unexpected reward is presented. Loss of dopamine neurones in the nigrostriatal pathway causes Parkinson’s disease. In the frontal lobes, dopamine controls the flow of information from other areas of the brain, and thus, dopamine disorders in this region can cause a decline in neurocognitive functions, especially memory, attention and problem solving. Reduced dopamine concentrations in the prefrontal cortex are thought to contribute to attention-deficit disorder and some symptoms of schizophrenia. Dopamine is also the primary neuroendocrine regulator of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. Dopamine is also commonly associated with the pleasure system of the brain. This plays a key role in understanding the mechanism of action of drugs (such as cocaine and the amphetamines), which seem to be directly or indirectly related to the increase of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has affected her medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following structures will have their muscles affected?

      Your Answer: Hand

      Correct Answer: Axial muscles

      Explanation:

      The cells in the anterior horn can be arranged in the following three main groups: medial, lateral and central. The medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord are located along the entire length of the spinal cord and are responsible for the innervation of the axial muscles of the body ( muscles of the head and neck region). Thus this disease will most likely affect the functioning of the muscles of the head and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ependymoma

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing weakness in his arms and legs over 5 days. On examination, there is symmetrical weakness on both sides of his face, along with weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of all four limbs. No loss of sensation noted. Deep tendon reflexes could not be elicited and plantar responses were downward. On enquiry, it was revealed that he had an upper respiratory tract infection 10 days ago. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an acute, autoimmune polyradiculoneuropathy which affects the peripheral nervous system and is usually triggered by an acute infectious process. 75% patients have a history of acute infection within the past 1–4 weeks, usually respiratory or gastrointestinal. immunisations have also been implicated. The most common form is acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy. It results in an ascending paralysis with complete loss of deep tendon reflexes. Treatment includes immunoglobulins and supportive care. However, the disease may be fatal due to severe pulmonary complications and dysautonomia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Correct Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.

      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was...

    Correct

    • upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was noted. This is likely to be accompanied with:

      Your Answer: Spasticity

      Explanation:

      An upper motor neuron lesion affects the neural pathway above the anterior horn cell or motor nuclei of the cranial nerves, whereas a lower motor neurone lesion affects nerve fibres travelling from the anterior horn of the spinal cord to the relevant muscles. An upper motor neurone lesions results in the following:

      – Spasticity in the extensor muscles (lower limbs) or flexor muscles (upper limbs).

      – ‘clasp-knife’ response where initial resistance to movement is followed by relaxation

      – Weakness in the flexors (lower limbs) or extensors (upper limbs) with no muscle wasting

      – Brisk tendon jerk reflexes

      – Positive Babinski sign (on stimulation of the sole of the foot, the big toe is raised rather than curled downwards)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of...

    Correct

    • Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Pacinian corpuscle

      Explanation:

      Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The primary motor cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary motor cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Correct

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Correct

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.

      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Correct

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have: ...

    Correct

    • A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have:

      Your Answer: Muscle wasting

      Explanation:

      Lower motor neurons (LMNs) connect the brainstem and spinal cord to muscle fibres. Damage to lower motor neurons is indicated by abnormal electromyographic potentials, fasciculations, paralysis, weakening and wasting of skeletal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      181.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Correct

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Production of pain is most likely associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Production of pain is most likely associated with:

      Your Answer: Substance P

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a short-chain polypeptide that functions as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator, and is thus, a neuropeptide. It has been linked with pain regulation, mood disorders, stress, reinforcement, neurogenesis, respiratory rhythm, neurotoxicity, nausea and emesis. It is also a potent vasodilator as it brings about release of nitric oxide from the endothelium. Its release can also cause hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      45.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Neurology (19/30) 63%
Pathology (5/8) 63%
Physiology (14/20) 70%
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