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  • Question 1 - An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent...

    Correct

    • An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent chest infections. CXR showed an absent thymic shadow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome usually presents at a young age with abnormal faces. Chest x-ray is characterised by an absent thymic shadow and recurrent infections due to an abnormal T-cell mediated immune response. Sometimes it presents by convulsions of the new-born due to hypocalcaemia as a result of a malfunctioning parathyroid gland and low levels of PTH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the...

    Correct

    • What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?

      Your Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Correct

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer: Assess developmental milestones

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?

      Your Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb

      Explanation:

      In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      109.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is normotensive. Her prolactin levels are normal. She has a raised 17 α-hydroxyprogesterone level.What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase, resulting from mutations or deletions of CYP21A, is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, accounting for more than 90% of cases.Females with mild 21-hydroxylase deficiency are identified later in childhood because of precocious pubic hair, clitoromegaly, or both, often accompanied by accelerated growth and skeletal maturation (simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia)Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency: High serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (usually >1000 ng/dL) and urinary pregnanetriol (metabolite of 17-hydroxyprogesterone) in the presence of clinical features suggestive of the disease| 24-hour urinary 17-ketosteroid levels are elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.

      Your Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the muscles of facial expression

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits she often has to repeat herself to be heard. History reveals that the girl often watches television in high volume. Weber test reveals that the sounds are louder on the left side. What can you conclude from these findings?

      Your Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.

      Explanation:

      To get more information regarding hearing loss, a physician should perform both Rinne and Weber tests. Weber test alone cannot tell which side is affected.Rinne test – a vibrating tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) is placed initially on the mastoid process behind each ear until sound is no longer heard. Then, without re-striking the fork, the fork is then quickly placed just outside the ear with the patient asked to report when the sound caused by the vibration is no longer heard. A normal or positive Rinne test is when sound is still heard when the tuning fork is moved to air near the ear (air conduction or AC), indicating that AC is equal or greater than (bone conduction or BC).Weber’s test – tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears. The patient is then asked which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side however in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An infant born at term presents with low blood sugar and a history...

    Correct

    • An infant born at term presents with low blood sugar and a history of poor feeding. She was born with exomphalos and a large left arm. What is the most probable condition that the baby is going to develop?

      Your Answer: Wilms’ tumour

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests that the baby has Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome, which predisposes the individual to cancer. The most common childhood tumour that a person with Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome may develop is Wilms’ tumour. Typical features include: macrosomia, asymmetric limb growth, macroglossia, neonatal hypoglycaemia, umbilical hernias or other abdominal wall deformities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prepatellar bursitis

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Draw a triangle

      Correct Answer: Copy a cross

      Explanation:

      4-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalEnjoys doing new things Plays “Mom” and “Dad” Is more and more creative with make-believe play Would rather play with other children than by himself Cooperates with other children Often can’t tell what’s real and what’s make-believe Talks about what she likes and what she is interested in Language/CommunicationKnows some basic rules of grammar, such as correctly using “he” and “she” Sings a song or says a poem from memory such as the “Itsy Bitsy Spider” or the “Wheels on the Bus” Tells stories Can say first and last nameCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Names some colours and some numbers Understands the idea of counting Starts to understand time Remembers parts of a story Understands the idea of “same” and “different” Draws a person with 2 to 4 body parts Uses scissors Starts to copy some capital letters Plays board or card games Tells you what he thinks is going to happen next in a book Movement/Physical DevelopmentHops and stands on one foot up to 2 seconds Catches a bounced ball most of the time Pours, cuts with supervision, and mashes own food

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass...

    Incorrect

    • Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?

      Your Answer: Observational

      Correct Answer: Cohort

      Explanation:

      The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal...

    Correct

    • A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Explanation:

      In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl’s twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?

      Your Answer: HLA DR4 genotype

      Correct Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype

      Explanation:

      HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor, wheeze, and lip swelling following the ingestion of a cashew nut at a birthday party.Which of the following can be considered an acceptable treatment option for this child?

      Your Answer: IM adrenaline 100 microgram/kg

      Correct Answer: Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from an anaphylactic reaction to the cashew nut he consumed.Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress.The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- Resuscitation – ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline is given at ten microgram/kg or Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000- IV Hydrocortisone is given at 4mg/kg- pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability? ...

    Incorrect

    • What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?

      Your Answer: <20

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
      Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
      Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
      Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
      Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned

      Explanation:

      Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Sleep alarms

      Explanation:

      As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed...

    Correct

    • A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Foreign body

      Explanation:

      Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      451.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein has significance primarily as a tumour marker, but maternal levels are frequently measured to detect some of the congenital abnormalities, in which the levels of alpha-fetoprotein are either increased or decreased. The conditions associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels are: spina bifida, anencephaly, myelomeningocele, oesophageal atresia, congenital nephrotic syndrome, and turner’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome or trisomy 21 is associated with low levels of maternal alpha-fetoprotein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate...

    Correct

    • What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate nutritional input?

      Your Answer: 15g/kg/day

      Explanation:

      The general target of weight gain in the neonatal intensive care unit is to replicate the intrauterine growth in the third trimester, which equates to the daily weight gain of nearly 15 g/kg/day with infants receiving 120 kcal/kg/day

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following causes macrocephaly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes macrocephaly?

      Your Answer: Poorly controlled gestational diabetes

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to...

    Incorrect

    • In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to successful breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Correct Answer: 0.25

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding may be significantly impaired (up to 25%) by breast augmentation. Equally, breast engorgement, which occurs due to vascular congestion, reduces nipple protrusion and subsequent ability to breastfeed successfully. In the latter, regular feeding or expressing is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is true of randomisation in a clinical trial? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of randomisation in a clinical trial?

      Your Answer: Aims to remove confounding

      Explanation:

      The main aim of randomisation in a clinical trial is to remove the bias and avoid any potential confounding variables. While in double blind studies both the investigators and the patients are not aware of which group they belong in, being blind is not essential in carrying out a randomized study, nor is it essential that the randomisation be done away from the study centre. A placebo also does not facilitate randomisation, which can be done in single centre and multi-centre trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC)....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?

      Your Answer: Abdominal trauma

      Explanation:

      Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - All of the given conditions are scaly dermatologic pathologies EXCEPT? ...

    Correct

    • All of the given conditions are scaly dermatologic pathologies EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Hand, foot, and mouth disease

      Explanation:

      Skin conditions resulting from excessive epidermal proliferation or inflammation, leading to a production of excessive scales, are referred to as papulosquamous disorders. These disorders can be generalized and localized. Localized causes of scaly lesions include tinea corporis, tinea cruris, tinea pedis, seborrheic dermatitis, psoriasis, pityriasis Versicolor, pityriasis alba, DLE, ichthyosis including Netherton syndrome (a severe form of ichthyosis which is autosomal recessive), and pellagra. Generalized causes include guttate psoriasis and pityriasis rosacea. Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a contagious viral illness that causes blisters in the mouth and on the extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of...

    Correct

    • Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis.On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg.Investigations show:Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600)Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20)Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20)Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450)Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22)TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who describe...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who describe what seems to be an episode of generalized tonic-clonic seizures, after she came home from an all-night party around 6 am. Her father has epilepsy and one of her cousins sometimes has episodes of blank spells. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

      Explanation:

      In people with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, symptoms can be brought on by: -Sleep deprivation-Psychological stress-Alcohol and drug use-Noncompliance of medication-Flickering lights such as strobe lights -Menses-Time of day – usually mornings

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples...

    Correct

    • A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples and a systolic murmur. Her femoral pulses are absent. Her mother admits she did not have any scans during gestation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disease that affects females. It presents with wide-spread nipples, low hairline, lymphoedema, short 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, cardiac problems, and horseshoe kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of the foetus. During her visit, she is informed she is going to have a baby boy. What will be the chromosomal arrangement of the baby?

      Your Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)

      Explanation:

      In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Genetic point mutation occurs in which of the given genetic abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Genetic point mutation occurs in which of the given genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Point mutations are the type of mutations in which only a single nucleotide of the DNA is either deleted, substituted or a new single nucleotide is inserted into the DNA, causing alterations in the original normal DNA sequencing. The examples of point mutations include hemochromatosis, sickle cell disease, and Tay-Sach’s disease. Huntington’s disease is a trinucleotide repeat disorder. Down’s syndrome is characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21, while Klinefelter syndrome is marked by an extra X chromosome. Fragile X syndrome is also a trinucleotide repeat disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen? ...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen?

      Your Answer: Complete atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart diseases such as complete atrioventricular septal defects are most likely to cause large left to right shunts leading to faltering growth due to chronic severe hypoxia, pulmonary oedema, and feeding problems. Isolated atrial septal defects or ventricular septal defects result in relatively smaller shunts. Pulmonary stenosis and bicuspid aortic valve do not cause chronic systemic hypoxia. People with these conditions are often asymptomatic and only show some symptoms with intense physical activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid? ...

    Incorrect

    • At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer: 1000ml

      Correct Answer: 600ml

      Explanation:

      In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 12 year old boy has a high HbA1c and is being checked...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy has a high HbA1c and is being checked by the diabetic specialist nurse. He has been skipping meals lately and his school teachers have noticed that he's been unhappy. Who do you suggest his parents take him to?

      Your Answer: Clinical psychologist

      Explanation:

      The boy is most probably a type 1 diabetic patient. Such a condition can affect the behaviour and psychological state of a young child reflected in their behaviour. The parents should seek the help of a clinical psychologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is...

    Correct

    • A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Undescended testes are associated with subfertility even if very early orchiopexy is performed

      Explanation:

      Undescended testis (UDT) is a common abnormality, affecting about 1/20 males at birth. Half of these have delayed testicular descent, with the testis in the scrotum by 10-12 weeks after term. Beyond this spontaneous descent is rare. Current treatment recommendations are that UDT beyond 3 months need surgery between 6-12 months of age. Some children have scrotal testes in infancy but develop UDT later in childhood because the spermatic cord does not elongate with age, leaving the testis behind as the scrotum moves further from the groin. The maldescended testis suffers heat stress when not at the lower scrotal temperature (33 degrees Celsius), interfering with testicular physiology and development of germ cells into spermatogonia. Recent evidence suggests orchidopexy between 6-12 months improves germ cell development, with early reports of improved fertility, but no evidence yet for changes in malignancy prognosis.Hypospadias is also a common abnormality in new-born males, affecting about 1/150 boys. Androgens control masculinization of the genital tubercle into penis between 8-12 weeks’ gestation, with tabularization of the urethra from the perineum to the tip of the glans. If this process is disrupted hypospadias occurs, with a variable proximal urethral meatus, failed ventral preputial development producing a dorsal hood, and discrepancy in the ventral versus dorsal penile length, causing a ventral bend in the penis, known as chordee. Surgery to correct hypospadias is recommended between 6-18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs....

    Correct

    • A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs. His mother denied any history of trauma. The boy had a sore throat a few weeks ago. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Coagulation profile

      Explanation:

      This history is suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura following a respiratory infection. A typical rash involving thighs and buttocks is often seen in this age group. Coagulation profile is the suitable answer from the given answers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following cranial nerves does not have both sensory and motor...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cranial nerves does not have both sensory and motor functions?

      Your Answer: Abducens (CN VI)

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves I, II, and VIII are considered purely afferent nerves since they conduct sensory information from the olfactory region, the retina of the eye, and the inner ear structures, respectively.Cranial nerves III, IV, VI, XI, and XII are considered purely efferent due to their motor output to the orbit, the neck, and the tongue.Cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X are considered mixed cranial nerves due to the presence of afferent and efferent fibres with both sensory and motor components.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Septal haematoma

      Correct Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma

      Explanation:

      Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome?

      Your Answer: It results from unexpressed genes on the chromosome of maternal origin

      Correct Answer: Affected individuals typically have small gonads

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when a chromosome from paternal chromosome 15q is deleted or unexpressed during the formation of the egg or sperm, or in embryonic development. Individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, and in this case on the paternal gene remains active in parts of the brain and other organs. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Angelman’s syndrome. Symptoms seen in Prader-Willi range from poor muscle tone during infancy to developmental and cognitive delays. Many individuals suffer from hypogonadism that affects fertility in both males and females. In Angelman’s syndrome the maternal chromosome 15q is unexpressed. The condition is also called happy puppet syndrome as affected children present with a happy demeanour, ataxic gait, and flapping movements of the limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - An 8 year old boy is admitted to the ward with renal colic....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old boy is admitted to the ward with renal colic. Family history is significant for similar renal calculi in his mother. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this recurrent colic in both mother and child?

      Your Answer: Cystinosis

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic hypercalciuria

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria (IH) is the commonest metabolic abnormality in patients with calcium kidney stones. It is characterized by normocalcemia, absence of diseases that cause increased urine calcium, and calcium excretion that is above 250 mg/day in women and 300 mg/day in men. Subjects with IH have a generalized increase in calcium turnover, which includes increased gut calcium absorption, decreased renal calcium reabsorption, and a tendency to lose calcium from bone. Despite the increase in intestinal calcium absorption, negative calcium balance is commonly seen in balance studies, especially on a low calcium diet. The mediator of decreased renal calcium reabsorption is not clear| it is not associated with either an increase in filtered load of calcium or altered PTH levels. There is an increased incidence of hypercalciuria in first-degree relatives of those with IH, but IH appears to be a complex polygenic trait with a large contribution from diet to expression of increased calcium excretion. Increased tissue vitamin D response may be responsible for the manifestations of IH in at least some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has...

    Correct

    • What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has never been immunized before, assuming there is no contraindication to immunization?

      Your Answer: Full course of diphtheria, tetanus, polio

      Explanation:

      A not immunized patient with a clean wound requires an immediate vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus and polio, according to the Green Book of Immunisation against infectious disease. (The Green Book has the latest information on vaccines and vaccination procedures, for vaccine preventable infectious diseases in the UK.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT surgeon, it was noticed that the bleeding was coming from the anterior part of the nose and the bleeding point was clearly visualised. Which of the following options is the most suitable choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Cautery

      Explanation:

      In the case of anterior nasal bleeds, when the bleeding point is clearly visualised the best management step is cautery, either electrical or chemical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Growth failure can be managed with recombinant human growth hormone (Somatropin) in the...

    Correct

    • Growth failure can be managed with recombinant human growth hormone (Somatropin) in the all of the following conditions except:

      Your Answer: Achondroplasia

      Explanation:

      Somatropin is a recombinant human growth hormone used to treat growth failure conditions associated with natural growth hormone deficiencies. According to the UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, these conditions include, Prader-Willi syndrome, Noonan syndrome, short stature Homeobox (SHOX) gene deficiency, Turner’s syndrome, chronic renal insufficiency and children who are small for gestational age. Treatment of short stature in achondroplasia has not seen any significant changes with somatotropin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      13.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics And Dysmorphology (4/6) 67%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/2) 100%
Child Development (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (3/5) 60%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (2/3) 67%
ENT (3/4) 75%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
Neonatology (3/5) 60%
Neurology And Neurodisability (2/4) 50%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed