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  • Question 1 - The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?

      Your Answer: Pectoralis major

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.

      In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).

      It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
      The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for...

    Incorrect

    • Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.

      This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?

      Your Answer: It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus

      Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4

      Explanation:

      Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.

      The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.

      It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.

      For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Slow calcium influx

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An elderly man complains of a vague lump near his stomach to his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man complains of a vague lump near his stomach to his physician. On examination, the lump is visible on coughing and is found within Hesselbach's triangle.

      Which of the following is true regarding the borders for this triangle?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, ASIS laterally, pubic tubercle medially

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament inferiorly, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of rectus sheath medially

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
      Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
      Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
      Laterally – inferior epigastric vessels

      Direct inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large...

    Incorrect

    • Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.

      The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?

      Your Answer: Pneumatic enrichment

      Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle

      Explanation:

      Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
      This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.

      The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.

      When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.

      The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.

      The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In medical testing, there are true negative, true positive, false positive and false...

    Incorrect

    • In medical testing, there are true negative, true positive, false positive and false negative results for some test.

      How are the sensitivity of these predictive tests calculated?

      Your Answer: True positives + true negatives / total

      Correct Answer: True positives / (true positives + false negatives)

      Explanation:

      The following terms are used in medical testing:

      True negative – The test is negative and the patient does not have the disease.
      True positive – The test is positive and the patient has the disease.
      False positive – The test is positive but the patient does not have the disease.
      False negative – The test is negative but the patient has the disease.

      The sensitivity of a predictive test = true positives / (true positives + false negatives).

      The specificity of a test = true negatives / (false positives + true negatives).

      The negative predictive value of a test = true negatives / (false negatives + true negatives).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.

      Your Answer: Is isotonic throughout the body

      Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres

      Explanation:

      Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.

      The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)

      For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .

      Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.

      The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure,...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure, the ileocolic artery is ligated. Which vessel does this artery originate from?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. It supplies:
      1. terminal ileum
      2. proximal right colon
      3. cecum
      4. appendix (via its branch of the appendicular artery)

      As veins accompany arteries in the mesentery and are lined by lymphatics, high ligation is the norm in cancer resections—the ileocolic artery branches off the SMA near the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted...

    Correct

    • You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.

      CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.

      Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?

      Your Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C

      Explanation:

      The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.

      In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:

      If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
      Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
      There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.

      In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:

      DC shocks are used as usual.
      Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.

      Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.

      Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T11

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?

      Your Answer: Temporality

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:

      1. Coherence & Consistency

      2. Temporal Precedence

      3. Specificity

      As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old presents to the emergency department with symptoms raising suspicion of mesenteric ischemia. To diagnose the condition, an angiogram is performed. The radiologist needs to cannulate the coeliac axis from the aorta for the angiogram.

      What vertebral level does the coeliac axis originate from the aorta?



      Your Answer: L3

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening especially if the small intestine is involved.

      A critical factor for survival of acute mesenteric ischemia is early diagnosis and intervention. Angiography uses X-ray and contrast dye to image arteries and identify the severity of ischemia or obstruction.

      The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
      1. Left gastric
      2. Common hepatic
      3. Splenic arteries

      There are some important landmarks of vessels at different levels of vertebrae that need to be memorized.

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?

      Your Answer: Nebulised ipratropium

      Correct Answer: Heliox

      Explanation:

      Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:

      1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpOâ‚‚ level of 94 98%.
      2. Use high-dose inhaled ?â‚‚ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
      intravenous ?â‚‚ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
      3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
      4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
      5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.

      A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.

      Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg....

    Correct

    • After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?

      Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case...

    Correct

    • One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?

      Your Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker

      Explanation:

      For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.

      There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.

      Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

      Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin (PGI2)

      Correct Answer: Leukotrienes

      Explanation:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

      The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

      The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

      Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
      An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
      A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

      Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

      TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

      PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

      PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Correct

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term parenteral nutrition. To gain venous access, the line is inserted into the basilic vein at the elbow region.

      As the catheter tip advances into the basilic vein, which venous structure will it first encounter?

      Your Answer: Subclavian vein

      Correct Answer: Axillary vein

      Explanation:

      A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is a long, thin tube inserted into the vein of a patient’s arm to gain access to the large central veins near the heart. PICC line is indicated for parenteral nutrition or to deliver medications. They can be used for medium-term venous access, defined as anywhere between several weeks to 6 months.

      The veins of choice for PICC are:
      1. Basilic
      2. Brachial
      3. Cephalic
      4. Medial cubital vein

      The vein of choice is the right basilic vein as it has a large circumference and is located superficially. It has the most straight route to the final destination of PICC (SVC or Right atrium). It courses through the axillary vein, then the subclavian, and finally settles into the SVC. It also has the least number of valves and a shallow angle of insertion when compared to the other veins.

      The basilic vein drains the medial end of the dorsal arch of the upper limb, passes along the medial aspect of the forearm, and pierces the deep fascia at the elbow. The basilic vein joins the venae comitantes of the brachial artery to form the axillary vein at the elbow.
      The posterior circumflex humeral vein is encountered before the axillary vein. However, a PICC line is unlikely to enter this structure because of its entry angle into the basilic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient? ...

    Incorrect

    • What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient?

      Your Answer: Water droplets of size 1 micron

      Correct Answer: Reduction in gas flow resistance

      Explanation:

      Smallest drops reach not only the upper but also the lower respiratory tracks. As a result, the ultrasonic nebulizer is most efficient for the therapy of pulmonary diseases and stands out as a robust and reliable support within the clinical setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.

      Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer: False-negative rate

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus...

    Incorrect

    • Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:

      Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
      2 / 400
      6 / 100
      10 / 25
      14 / 6.25

      Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?

      Your Answer: 1 hour

      Correct Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.

      Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:

      Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 79-year-old female complains of painful legs, especially in her thigh region. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old female complains of painful legs, especially in her thigh region. The pain starts after walking and settles with rest. She occasionally has to take paracetamol to relieve the pain. She is a known case of hyperlipidaemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and depression.

      Her physician makes a provisional diagnosis of claudication of the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery.
      Which of the following anatomical landmarks does the external iliac artery cross to become the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Medial border of sartorius muscle

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The external iliac artery is the larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery. It forms the main blood supply to the lower limbs. The common iliac bifurcates into the internal and external iliac artery anterior to the sacroiliac joint.

      The external iliac artery courses on the medial border of the psoas major muscles and exits the pelvic girdle posterior to the inguinal ligament. Here, midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic symphysis, the external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery and descends along the anteromedial part of the thigh in the femoral triangle.

      The pectineus forms the posterior border of the femoral canal.
      The femoral vein forms the lateral border of the femoral canal.
      The medial border of the adductor longus muscle forms the medial wall of the femoral triangle.
      The medial border of the sartorius muscle forms the lateral wall of the femoral triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      142.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

    The...

    Incorrect

    • Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

      The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?

      Your Answer: CYP3A4

      Correct Answer: CYP2D6

      Explanation:

      Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

      As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

      The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

      Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

      All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?

      Your Answer: The transparent catheter is 100 cm in length

      Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings

      Explanation:

      A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings

      18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub

      Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura

      Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure

      Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas...

    Correct

    • A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed.

      Which set of results is most likely her own?

      Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2
      A - 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      B - 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      C - 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      D - 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)

      Your Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.

      Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?

      Your Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae

      Explanation:

      Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.

      Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.

      Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)

      Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.

      Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur...

    Correct

    • An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery.

      On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled.

      Her measurements are:
      End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240)
      End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140)

      Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.

      The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:

      SV = EDV – ESV, and

      EF = SV/EDV x 100

      The normal range for EF is >55-70%.

      For this patient,

      SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore

      EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to...

    Incorrect

    • Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

      Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test.

      Which type of bias is that?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Work-up bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.

      Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.

      Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.

      Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/7) 14%
Pharmacology (0/4) 0%
Statistical Methods (3/6) 50%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/3) 33%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
Passmed