00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon...

    Correct

    • During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon is clamping the?

      Your Answer: Uterine arteries

      Explanation:

      The ureter forms the posterior boundary of a shallow depression which lodges the ovary and then runs medially and forward on the lateral aspect of the uterine cervix and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder. It is also situated about 2cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus. The relationship of the ureters and uterine arteries is of clinical significance because the arteries are at risk of iatrogenic injury during hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure...

    Correct

    • During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure that lies immediately anterior to the thoracic duct. Which structure is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      In the mid-thorax, the azygos vein, thoracic duct and aorta (in this order from right to the left) are all located posterior to the oesophagus. The superior vena cava, left internal jugular vein and trachea are not found in the mid thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - From which source does the lingual artery originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which source does the lingual artery originate?

      Your Answer: Maxillary

      Correct Answer: External carotid

      Explanation:

      The lingual artery arises from the external carotid between the superior thyroid artery and facial artery. It can be located easily on the lower surface of the tongue. The terminal branch of the lingual artery is the deep lingual artery. On its course the lingual artery gives off side branches: dorsal lingual branches that supply the dorsum of the tongue till the epiglottis; sublingual artery that supplies the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man...

    Correct

    • A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man who presented to the out patient clinic with chest pain. Such a tumour is likely to compress the following structure:

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The boundaries of the posterior mediastinum are: the superiorly through the sternal angle and T4/5, inferiorly, the diaphragm, anteriorly, by the middle mediastinal structures and posteriorly by the spinal cord. Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. The oesophagus is the only structure in the posterior mediastinum among the choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Injury to this nerve will affect the function of the palatoglossus and levator...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to this nerve will affect the function of the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles:

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve IX

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve X

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) innervates both the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer: Inferior oblique muscle

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which lymph nodes are most likely to enlarge due to the spread of...

    Correct

    • Which lymph nodes are most likely to enlarge due to the spread of infection through the lymphatic channels in a patient with a boil on his scrotum?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal nodes drain the perineum and the external genitalia which include the scrotum and the labia majora. The testes, however, drain to the lumbar nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Correct

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain....

    Incorrect

    • The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?

      Your Answer: Carotid sheath and prevertebral fascia

      Correct Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain, a computed tomography showed a large mass in the posterior mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the posterior mediastinum include:

      Superior: a plane through the sternal angle and T4/5

      Inferior: the diaphragm

      Anterior: the middle mediastinal structures

      Posterior the spinal cord.

      Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. In this case, the lymph nodes is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?

      Your Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
      The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Longissimus

      Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident...

    Correct

    • An X ray of a 60 year old male brought to the accident and emergency following a fall down stairs shows a fractured olecranon process of the right ulna with the line of fracture passing through the superior surface, disrupting a muscle. Which among the following muscles was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Triceps brachii

      Explanation:

      The superior surface of the olecranon process forms an attachment for the insertion of the triceps brachii on the posterior aspect. It also has a minor transverse groove for the attachment of part of the posterior ligament of the elbow on the anterior aspect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain: ...

    Incorrect

    • The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain:

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The contents of the carpal tunnel include:

      – Median nerve

      – Flexor digitorum supervicialis

      – Flexor digitorum profundus

      – Flexor policis longus

      – Flexor carpi radialis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?

      Your Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Left lateral spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:

      Your Answer: Superior rotation of the scapula

      Correct Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus

      Explanation:

      This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing weakness in his arms and legs over 5 days. On examination, there is symmetrical weakness on both sides of his face, along with weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of all four limbs. No loss of sensation noted. Deep tendon reflexes could not be elicited and plantar responses were downward. On enquiry, it was revealed that he had an upper respiratory tract infection 10 days ago. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an acute, autoimmune polyradiculoneuropathy which affects the peripheral nervous system and is usually triggered by an acute infectious process. 75% patients have a history of acute infection within the past 1–4 weeks, usually respiratory or gastrointestinal. immunisations have also been implicated. The most common form is acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy. It results in an ascending paralysis with complete loss of deep tendon reflexes. Treatment includes immunoglobulins and supportive care. However, the disease may be fatal due to severe pulmonary complications and dysautonomia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One...

    Incorrect

    • A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal

      Correct Answer: Transverse cervical

      Explanation:

      The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must...

    Incorrect

    • When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?

      Your Answer: Costal margin

      Correct Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the...

    Correct

    • The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the head that tenses the soft palate. Which of the following structures is associated with the tensor villi palatini muscle?

      Your Answer: The hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid hamulus is a hook-like process at the lower extremity of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone around which the tendon of the tensor veli palatini passes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - All the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the hip joint...

    Incorrect

    • All the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the hip joint except:

      Your Answer: Foveal artery

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the hip joint is from two main arteries, the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries. These are branches of the deep artery of the thigh, which itself is a branch of the femoral artery. There is contribution of blood supply from the inferior gluteals, foveal and obturator arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of...

    Incorrect

    • During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of glass severed the posterolateral aspect of the driver's neck. A physical examination reveals that the driver is unable to elevate the tip of his shoulder on the side that was injured. Which nerve was injured?

      Your Answer: Greater occipital

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      The tip of the shoulder is formed by the acromion of the scapula. This part is moved by the trapezius muscle which is innervated by the accessory nerve. Damage to this nerve therefore will prevent the patient from lifting the tip of the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal...

    Incorrect

    • During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:

      Your Answer: Sternoclavicular joint

      Correct Answer: Second costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      138.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 80 year-old quadriplegic man has been lying supine for 7 weeks in...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year-old quadriplegic man has been lying supine for 7 weeks in a critical care ward. He develops a right lung abscess that is draining by gravity to a particular region of the lung. Which is the most likely site of pus collection?

      Your Answer: Lingula

      Correct Answer: Superior segment of the lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The superior segmental bronchus of the lower lobe of the right lung branches posteriorly off the intermediate bronchus or the inferior lobe bronchus. It is therefore more likely to receive fluid or foreign bodies that enter the right main bronchus especially when the patient is supine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 54 year old man fell off his bicycle. He felt a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old man fell off his bicycle. He felt a severe pain in his hand and wasn't able to move it. It was found that a carpal bone in the distal row was fractured. Which is the most likely bone?

      Your Answer: Lunate

      Correct Answer: Trapezium

      Explanation:

      There are eight carpal bones which are arranged in two rows, proximal and distal; scaphoid, lunate, triquetral and pisiform are of proximal row. Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and hamate are of the distal row.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg...

    Correct

    • What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Explanation:

      A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury...

    Incorrect

    • In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury to a major vasculature in the pericardium; the surgeon inserted his left index finger through the transverse pericardial sinus, pulled forward on the two large vessels lying ventral to his finger, and compressed these vessels with his thumb to control the bleeding. Which vessels were these?

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava and aorta

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary trunk and aorta

      Explanation:

      Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind two great vessels (aorta and pulmonary trunk) and in front of the superior vena cava and is accessed from above as in this case. The brachiocephalic trunk is located above the pericardium and the right pulmonary artery is above the pericardial reflections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following structures lying posterior to the ovary are at risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures lying posterior to the ovary are at risk of injury in excision of a malignant tumour in the right ovary?

      Your Answer: External iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Ureter

      Explanation:

      The ovaries are two nodular structures situated one on either side of the uterus in relation to the lateral wall of the pelvis and attached to the back of the broad ligament of the uterus, lying posteroinferiorly to the fallopian tubes. Each ovary has a lateral and medial surface. The ureter is at greater risk of iatrogenic injury at this location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: Adduction of the digits will be affected by carpal tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: All of the adductors of the digits take at least part of their attachments from metacarpal bones

      Explanation:

      Lying on the palmer surfaces of the metacarpal bones are four palmar interossei which are smaller than the dorsal interossei. Arising from the entire length of the metacarpal bone of one finger, is a palmar interosseous, which is inserted into the side of the base of the first phalanx and the aponeurotic expansion of the extensor digitorum communis tendon to the same finger. All the interossei are innervated by the eighth cervical nerve, through the deep palmar branch of the ulnar nerve. The palmar interossei adducts the fingers to an imaginary line drawn longitudinally through the centre of the middle finger.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The posterior boundary of the carotid triangle is bounded by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior boundary of the carotid triangle is bounded by which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Anterior border of the trapezius muscle

      Correct Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The carotid triangle is a portion of the anterior triangle of the neck. It is bounded superiorly by the posterior belly of the digastric muscle, antero-inferiorly by the superior belly of omohyoid and posteriorly by the sternocleidomastoid. The floor is formed by the thyrohyoid, hyoglossus, middle and inferior pharyngeal constrictors and the roof is formed by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma and deep fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles...

    Incorrect

    • Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles in the list?

      Your Answer: Mylohyoid

      Correct Answer: Hyoglossus

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve, innervates all the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus. The muscles of the tongue innervated by this nerve include the extrinsic muscles; hyoglossus, styloglossus, genioglossus and the intrinsic muscles; superior longitudinal, inferior longitudinal, vertical and transverse muscles. The salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossus and the palatopharyngeus muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve. The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve. Finally, the geniohyoid muscle is innervated by the olfactory nerve (CN I) via the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that...

    Incorrect

    • The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that dura mater of the brain. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Occipital artery

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges.

      The middle meningeal artery is a large arterial branch of the maxillary artery which is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery. Upon originating, the middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum. In the skull, it courses in the middle cranial fossa where it provides several branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - If your EEG shows waves with a frequency range of 8-12 Hz, the...

    Incorrect

    • If your EEG shows waves with a frequency range of 8-12 Hz, the waves most likely to be seen are:

      Your Answer: Delta

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is the neurophysiological measurement of the electrical activity of the brain. It is done by placing electrodes on the scalp or subdurally. In reality, the electrical currents are not measured, but rather the voltage differences between different parts of the brain. Four major types of EEG activity are recognized, which are alpha, beta, delta and theta.

      Alpha waves, also known as Berger’s waves ranges in frequency from 8-12 Hz. Best detected with eyes closed, alpha waves are characteristic of a relaxed, alert state of consciousness. An alpha-like normal variant called mu is sometimes seen over the motor cortex (central scalp) and attenuates with movement or, rather, with the intention to move.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - The primary motor cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary motor cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Occipital lobe

      Correct Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?

      Your Answer: Salivation

      Correct Answer: Facial expression

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:

      Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal

      – Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear

      – Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue

      Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):

      – Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear

      – Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer: Thyroarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Incorrect

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It is decreased during activity

      Correct Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient loses consciousness days or weeks after an otherwise insignificant head trauma, especially in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Correct Answer: Dural bridging vein

      Explanation:

      A subdural haematoma is a type of hematoma, usually associated with traumatic brain injury, in which blood collects between the dura mater and the pia-arachnoid mater. Symptoms of subdural haemorrhage have a slower onset than those of epidural haemorrhages because the lower pressure veins bleed more slowly than arteries. These injuries are more common in elderly patients, especially those taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs. Oedema and increased intracranial pressure are unusual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Epidural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:

      Your Answer: Hypotonia

      Correct Answer: Hyperaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?

      Your Answer: The pupils are constricted (accommodation response)

      Correct Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed

      Explanation:

      Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the...

    Correct

    • The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the motor innervation of this muscle?

      Your Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen

      Explanation:

      The orbicularis oculi is a muscle in the face that closes the eyelids. It is supplied by zygomatic branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which exits through the stylomastoid foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior ulnar collateral

      Explanation:

      The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The...

    Incorrect

    • A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior lobe

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.

      The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.

      The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.

      The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of...

    Incorrect

    • The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (27/36) 75%
Pelvis (3/3) 100%
Thorax (9/11) 82%
Head & Neck (7/14) 50%
Upper Limb (7/7) 100%
Neurology (6/8) 75%
Physiology (4/6) 67%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Passmed