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  • Question 1 - Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

      Your Answer: 2nd Meiotic Division

      Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

      Explanation:

      Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric nodes

      Correct Answer: para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The Ovaries lymph drains primarily to the lateral para-aortic lymph nodes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?

      Your Answer: Submucous fibroids.

      Correct Answer: Anovulatory cycles.

      Explanation:

      Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.

      Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.

      Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
      If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following hormones are required for alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones are required for alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Progesterone, Prolactin and hPL

      Explanation:

      The changes seen in breast tissue with the menstrual cycle are accentuated during pregnancy. Deposition of fat around glandular tissue occurs, and the number of glandular ducts is increased by oestrogen, while progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL) increase the number of gland alveoli. Prolactin is essential for the stimulation of milk secretion and during pregnancy prepares the alveoli for milk production. Although prolactin concentration increases throughout pregnancy, it does not then result in lactation since it is antagonized at an alveolar receptor level by oestrogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around...

    Incorrect

    • In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had come into touch with a youngster who had been diagnosed with rubella two weeks prior. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management career?

      Your Answer: Gamma globulin intramuscularly to the mother.

      Correct Answer: Serial blood samples for rubella antibody assessment.

      Explanation:

      If the patient already has immunity (IgG positive) and if maternal rubella infection is the cause of the current symptoms (initial lgG and IgM negative, but IgM positive on a second sample 2-3 weeks later), amniocentesis may be required to confirm fetal infection.
      Ultrasound may reveal growth limitation in late pregnancy, but a fetal congenital defect is rare when the infection begins at 10 weeks of pregnancy, and ultrasound testing at 12 weeks of pregnancy is unlikely to detect abnormalities, while it may discover one from 18-20 weeks. Given the well-known deleterious fetal effects of rubella infection in early pregnancy, gamma-globulin is unlikely to be beneficial at this point in the infective process, and pregnancy termination would certainly be considered by some individuals.
      On the basis of prenatal rubella infection, this would not be recommended unless the infection was shown to have occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the...

    Incorrect

    • A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Use of angiotensin II receptors blocks and ACE inhibitors are known to result in renal dysgenesis. Due to renal dysgenesis oligohydramnios occurs that leads to IUGR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy.

      Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.

      Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness of the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The anterior aspect of the vulva (mons pubis, anterior labia) is supplied by derivatives of the lumbar plexus: the anterior labial nerves, derived from the
      ilio-inguinal nerve, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
      The posterior aspect of the vulva is supplied by derivatives of the sacral plexus: the perineal branch of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh laterally, and the pudendal nerve centrally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG changes. She suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). You inspect the cervix. At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?

      Your Answer: Less than 4cm

      Correct Answer: Less than 3cm

      Explanation:

      Indications for FBS:
      1. Pathological CTG in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      2. Suspected acidosis in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      Contraindications to FBS:
      – Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
      – Known fetal coagulopathy
      – Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
      – Acute fetal compromise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      443.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Aromatase is key to Oestradiol production in the ovaries. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Aromatase is key to Oestradiol production in the ovaries. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FSH induces the granulosa cells to make aromatase

      Explanation:

      The two main cell types of the ovaries:
      1. The theca cells produce androgen in the form of androstenedione. The theca cells are not able to convert androgen to oestradiol themselves. The produced androgen is therefore taken up by granulosa cells.
      2. The neighbouring granulosa cells then convert the androgen into oestradiol under the enzymatic action of aromatase FSH induces the granulosa cells to produce aromatase for this purpose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Listeria Monocytogenes is a cause of congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is food, especially unpasteurised milk. Congenital listeriosis can lead to spontaneous abortions, premature birth and chorioamnionitis. At birth, neonates may present with septicaemia, respiratory distress and inflammatory granulomatosis. The case mortality rate for listeriosis is thought to be between 20-30%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast that presented after a car accident 2 weeks ago. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Since the car crash happened two weeks prior, breast trauma is suggested and thus fat necrosis is the most probable diagnosis. Phyllodes tumours are typically a firm, palpable mass. These tumours are very fast-growing, and can increase in size in just a few weeks. Occurrence is most common between the ages of 40 and 50, prior to menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy.

    Which of the following complications are possible to develop...

    Incorrect

    • Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy.

      Which of the following complications are possible to develop if warfarin is used in second trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal optic atrophy

      Explanation:

      Administration of warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters as it have the ability to cross placenta. Intake of warfarin during 6-12 weeks of gestation can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterized by the following features:
      – A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
      – Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
      – Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctata, which is evident on X-ray as stippling of the epiphyses.
      – Intellectual disability
      – Low birth weight

      As these effects are usually dose dependent, recent estimates shows that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5% in babies of women who requires warfarin throughout pregnancy.
      Later exposure as after 12 weeks, is associated with symptoms like central nervous system anomalies, including microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is presented with complete absence cerebellar vermis and enlarged fourth ventricle, and mental retardation, as well as eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia and Peter anomaly (anterior segment dysgenesis).
      Those newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters there will be blindness and other complication of exposed to warfarin in neonates include perinatal intracranial and other major bleeding episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance ...

    Incorrect

    • Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal Dominant

      Explanation:

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) can either be autosomal dominant or recessive. The autosomal dominant variant is more common in adult PKD however, the recessive pattern is more common in infantile PKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation.

      The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.

      With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.

      PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:

      Anger or irritability.
      Anxiety and panic attacks.
      Depression and suicidal thoughts.
      Difficulty concentrating.
      Fatigue and low energy.
      Food cravings or binge eating.
      Headaches.
      Insomnia.
      Mood swings.

      The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:

      Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
      The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
      The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
      Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
      Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.

      Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Only 1% of affected foetuses will survive to term

      Explanation:

      The incidence of 45,XO turner syndrome is around 1 in 8000 live births. Approximately 1% of monosomy X female embryos survive. Phenotypically they are females and 90% do not develop secondary sexual characteristics and hormone replacement is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
      Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
      Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2nd

      Explanation:

      If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.

      Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis

      Explanation:

      Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interphase

      Explanation:

      DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has...

    Incorrect

    • You have just clerked in a patient on the labour ward who has SLE. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SLE an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III

      Explanation:

      SLE is a type III hypersensitivity reaction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
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  • Question 25 - An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on...

    Incorrect

    • An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on day-12 of her menses which usually lasts for 28 days. You have decided to give her Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg) as a post-intercourse contraceptive. She is requesting information about any potential adverse effects as well as its efficacy.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The treatment fails to prevent pregnancy in 2-3% of women treated.

      Explanation:

      Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 750pg) is only an emergency contraceptive and is not designed to be a regular form of contraception. If taken within 24 hours, it is estimated to be able to prevent up 97-98% of pregnancies and 58% if given between 48-72 hours post-unprotected intercourse. It can cause vaginal bleeding within a few days of its administration if it is given before day 8-10 of her menstrual cycle. However, if given mid-cycle, it typically doesn’t affect the timing of her next period unless conception occurs. Nausea and vomiting were common when high doses of OCP were used as a post-intercourse contraceptive. Nausea and vomiting still can occur with Postinor-2, but not up to 50% of women. There is currently no evidence to suggest that the levonorgestrel dose would cause a virilising effect on female foetuses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Estriol

      Explanation:

      The 3 main oestrogens are Estrone (E1) Oestradiol (E2) and Estriol (E3). Oestradiol is the predominant oestrogen during female reproductive years except during the early follicular phase when Estrone predominates. During pregnancy Estriol levels rise significantly and this becomes the dominant oestrogen during pregnancy. Ethinylestradiol and Mestranol are oestrogen found in COCP’s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after an obstructed labour. Upon examination the leg is cold and pale. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Embolus

      Explanation:

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) during pregnancy and the postpartum window occurs at a 6-10-fold higher rate compared with age-matched peers and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality. Hypercoagulability persists for 6-8 weeks after delivery with the highest risk of PE being during the postpartum period. The lack of randomized trials in pregnant women leads to variability in practice, which are largely based on expert consensus or extrapolation from non-pregnant cohorts. The standard treatment of VTE in pregnancy is anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), which like unfractionated heparin does not cross the placenta and is not teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.

      Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.

      Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

      Explanation:

      Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
      Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)

      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.

      Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.

      Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.

      Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.

      Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She has not been on oestrogen replacement therapy and now desires to start due to concerns about osteoporosis. On routine pelvic exam, you palpate a small uterus and cervix along with palpable ovaries bilaterally. Of the following, your next step in the management of this patient should be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      In a postmenopausal woman, the ovaries should not be palpable; if they are, it should raise the concern that an ovarian malignancy is present. Before one would perform an operative evaluation, radiologic assessment should be done.

      – Although this is an accepted regimen for oestrogen replacement therapy, the palpable ovaries need to be evaluated to rule out malignancy.
      – Dual photon densitometry will give a reliable measure of bone density. Again, however, the palpable ovary is the first thing that needs to be worked up.
      – Although surgical exploration may be warranted, initial workup of the adnexal mass should include an ultrasound along with tumour markers. A CT scan may also be warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 22 year old woman miscarries at 6 weeks gestation. At checkup, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old woman miscarries at 6 weeks gestation. At checkup, she shows no obvious signs of complication. What would you advise regarding further pregnancy testing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test in 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      In the management of a miscarriage, after the completion of 7-14 days of expectant management, the woman is advised to take a pregnancy test after 3 weeks. In case of a positive result she is to return for further care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Passmed