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  • Question 1 - How are the long chain fatty acids (more than 10 to 12 carbon...

    Correct

    • How are the long chain fatty acids (more than 10 to 12 carbon atoms) absorbed?

      Your Answer: Re-esterified to triglycerides and enter the lymphatics as chylomicrons

      Explanation:

      Short and medium chain fatty acids are absorbed into the blood via intestinal capillaries and travel through the portal vein. Long chain fatty acids are not directly released into the intestinal capillaries. They are re-esterified to triglycerides and are coated with cholesterol and protein, forming chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are released in the lymphatic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      16.4
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:

      Your Answer: Endothelial cells

      Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.6
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis: ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:

      Your Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes

      Explanation:

      There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      24.6
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of: ...

    Correct

    • Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of:

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in between the cells. They allow for the formation of low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which...

    Correct

    • A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      42.6
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Activation of factor viii

      Correct Answer: Collagen fibers underlying the endothelium

      Explanation:

      The contact activation (intrinsic) pathway begins with formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and FXII (Hageman factor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which one of the following is true about bone marrow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true about bone marrow?

      Your Answer: All of options are true

      Correct Answer: At birth the bone marrow is entirely red marrow and is converted to yellow marrow with age

      Explanation:

      The two types of bone marrow are red marrow, which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells. Red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells arise in red marrow. Both types of bone marrow contain numerous blood vessels and capillaries. At birth, all bone marrow is red. With age, more and more of it is converted to the yellow type; only around half of adult bone marrow is red.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: It causes hypotension

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      60
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by:

      Your Answer: Stimulation of b1-adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting the breakdown cAMP

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: GnRH antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent infection. Bone marrow aspiration revealed a calcium level of 3.9 mmol/l and alkaline phosphatase level of 160u/l. What type of cell would be found in abundance in the marrow spear?

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma or plasma cell myeloma, is a cancer of plasma cells, responsible for producing antibodies. It often, presents early with no symptoms followed by bone pain and pathological fractures (metastases), raised calcium levels, bleeding, frequent infections, and anaemia. It usually occurs around the age of 61 and is more common in men than women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered

      Explanation:

      Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h. Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary. Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      43.8
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to: ...

    Correct

    • Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to:

      Your Answer: Troponin c

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which one of the following makes up most of the adrenal cortex? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following makes up most of the adrenal cortex?

      Your Answer: Zona fasciculata

      Explanation:

      The zona fasciculata represents the widest area of the adrenal cortex, situated in the middle of the cortex. It produces glucocorticoids including; 11-deoxycorticosterone, corticosterone, and cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is?

      Your Answer: Binding site for Ca2+ to initiate muscle contraction

      Correct Answer: Allows attachment of troponin components to tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin, and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Where is intrinsic factor secreted? ...

    Correct

    • Where is intrinsic factor secreted?

      Your Answer: Gastric parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor (IF), also known as gastric intrinsic factor (GIF), is a glycoprotein produced by the parietal cells of the stomach. It is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) later on in the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell...

    Incorrect

    • Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell bodies in which nuclei?

      Your Answer: Paraventricular

      Correct Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Arcuate nucleus dopaminergic neurons consist of a single group of neurons that project to the median eminence where they release dopamine into the hypophyseal portal circulation to inhibit pituitary prolactin secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment, used clinically in myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment, used clinically in myocardial infarction and stroke?

      Your Answer: It directly lyses fibrin

      Correct Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

      Explanation:

      tPA is used in some cases of diseases that feature blood clots, such as pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, and stroke, in a medical treatment called thrombolysis. The most common use is for ischemic stroke. As an enzyme, it catalyses the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, the major enzyme responsible for clot breakdown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      16.7
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following is the correct way to calculate the anion gap?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the correct way to calculate the anion gap?

      Your Answer: (Na + K) – (HCO3 + Cl)

      Explanation:

      The anion gap is the difference between the measured cations (positively charged ions) and the measured anions (negatively charged ions) in serum, plasma, or urine. The magnitude of this difference in the serum is often calculated in medicine when attempting to identify the cause of metabolic acidosis. Anion Gap = ([Na+] + [K+]) − ([Cl−] + [HCO−3])

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      18
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins into free fatty acids for storage in...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins into free fatty acids for storage in fat cells?

      Your Answer: Lecithin- cholesterol acyltransferase

      Correct Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      Lipoprotein lipase is a water-soluble enzyme that hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins, such as those found in chylomicrons and very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), into two free fatty acids and one monoacylglycerol molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      109.6
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are dark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A band and z line

      Explanation:

      Dark bands: a, h. Dark line: z. Clear band: i, m

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Critical shortening of Telomeres result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Critical shortening of Telomeres result in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inactivation of p 53 and prb and cell crisis

      Explanation:

      Telomere length shortens with age. Progressive shortening of telomeres leads to senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells, affecting the health and lifespan of an individual. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is a programmed form of cell death involving the degradation of cellular constituents by a group of cysteine proteases called caspases. The caspases can be activated through either the intrinsic (mitochondrial mediated) or extrinsic (death receptor mediated) apoptotic pathways. The intrinsic apoptotic pathway is characterized by permeabilization of the mitochondria and release of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The principal enzyme of lipid digestion is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal enzyme of lipid digestion is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipase

      Explanation:

      Lipase is the principle enzyme that digest lipids. Amylase digest carbohydrates. Colipase is a co-enzyme that optimize the activity of lipase. Trypsin digest proteins and cholesterol esterase digest cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion of fat begin in a normal human being?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The enzyme lipase which is responsible for digestion of fat is secreted by the exocrine pancreas in the 2nd part of the duodenum at the point where the pancreatic duct opens. It opens together with the common bile duct which contains bile that emulsify fat aiding in digestion. The oesophagus, stomach and mouth do not contain enzymes related to fat digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The hippocampus is involved in the memory of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The hippocampus is involved in the memory of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facts

      Explanation:

      The hippocampus plays an important role in forming new memories about experienced events. Some researchers say that hippocampus plays a major role in declarative memory for example memory of facts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Arachidonic acid is converted to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Arachidonic acid is converted to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin H2

      Explanation:

      The enzymes cyclooxygenase-1 and -2 (i.e. prostaglandin G/H synthase 1 and 2 {PTGS1 and PTGS2}) metabolize arachidonic acid to Prostaglandin G2 and prostaglandin H2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High LDL

      Explanation:

      The World Health Organization 1999 criteria require the presence of any one of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:

      • Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHg
      • Dyslipidaemia: triglycerides (TG): ≥ 1.695 mmol/L and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) ≤ 0.9 mmol/L (male), ≤ 1.0 mmol/L (female)
      • Central obesity: waist: hip ratio > 0.90 (male); > 0.85 (female), or body mass index > 30 kg/m2
      • Microalbuminuria: urinary albumin excretion ratio ≥ 20 µg/min or albumin: creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?...

    Incorrect

    • The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN 5 to 8

      Explanation:

      The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?...

    Incorrect

    • The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Action potential

      Explanation:

      This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Medicine (9/20) 45%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/4) 50%
Haematology (1/4) 25%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Metabolism (0/1) 0%
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