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  • Question 1 - A 3-year-old girl was accompanied by her mother to the hospital due to...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl was accompanied by her mother to the hospital due to a change in speech, which is now an indistinct nasal speech. She is always tired by day, has restless sleep and even snores at night. What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT surgeon

      Explanation:

      Adenoid tissue sometimes swell as a result of fighting off the infection as germs are trapped in the adenoids. Adenoid enlargement is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      47.6
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  • Question 2 - A young child presents with a dull and greyish tympanic membrane and no...

    Incorrect

    • A young child presents with a dull and greyish tympanic membrane and no shadow of the handle of malleus is evident. His mother complains that he does not respond when she calls him and that he lately raises the volume of the TV. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Correct Answer: Secretory OM

      Explanation:

      In secretory OM, effusion in the middle ear is present which does not produce any pain to the patient in comparison to acute OM which produces otalgia. The family members are the ones to notice hearing loss as the patient usually is not aware of it. On otoscopy, the features described in the question are prominent. Otitis externa is usually painful and it also produces an itching sensation. Chronic otitis media is painful and may interfere with balance problems. Cholesteatoma is an abnormal cystic growth in the middle ear that usually discharges foul-smelling fluids and as it grows, otalgia can appear.

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      • ENT
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  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old female was suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection. Her mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old female was suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection. Her mother treated her with paracetamol only, for 5 days. After that, she presented in the emergency room with severe pain in her left ear, high-grade fever and irritability. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis media (OM)

      Explanation:

      Upper respiratory tract infection when not treated accordingly can lead to otitis media and the patient presents with severe earache and fever.

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      • ENT
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  • Question 4 - A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT surgeon, it was noticed that the bleeding was coming from the anterior part of the nose and the bleeding point was clearly visualised. Which of the following options is the most suitable choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Cautery

      Explanation:

      In the case of anterior nasal bleeds, when the bleeding point is clearly visualised the best management step is cautery, either electrical or chemical.

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      • ENT
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  • Question 5 - An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and tragal tenderness. The exam shows a normal tympanic membrane and ear cleaning was done. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibiotic drop with steroid

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs described are suggestive of otitis externa. The key treatment for otitis externa is ear cleaning and antibiotic drops with steroid.

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      • ENT
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  • Question 6 - A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She anxiously explained that he was not responding to loud sounds. He was vocalizing at the presentation and he had normal motor milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange Hearing test

      Explanation:

      History is suggestive of a possible hearing impairment. As the baby is vocalizing and has normal motor development, an isolated hearing problem is possible. A hearing test will confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 7 - A mother attends the clinic with her 4-year-old. She has noticed a discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A mother attends the clinic with her 4-year-old. She has noticed a discharge from the his left ear over the past two weeks. He has a history of frequent episodes of ‘ear infection’ but has been otherwise well. There is no reported fever. On examination, the child is systemically well. The child is co-operative with otoscopy which shows an intact pink tympanic membrane on the right but a possible perforation on the left. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for ENT opinion

      Explanation:

      The child has Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) which is defined as a perforated tympanic membrane with persistent drainage from the middle ear for more than 2-6 weeks.CSOM differs from chronic serous otitis media in that chronic serous otitis media may be defined as a middle ear effusion without perforation that is reported to persist for more than 1-3 months. Patients with chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) present with a draining ear of some duration and a premorbid history of recurrent acute otitis media, traumatic perforation, or the placement of ventilation tubes. Typically, they deny pain or discomfort. A common presenting symptom is hearing loss in the affected ear. Reports of fever, vertigo, and pain should raise concerns about infratemporal or intracranial complications. A history of persistent CSOM after appropriate medical treatment should alert the physician to consider cholesteatoma.The external auditory canal may or may not be oedematous and is not typically tender. The discharge varies from fetid, purulent, and cheese like to clear and serous. Granulation tissue is often seen in the medial canal or middle ear space. The middle ear mucosa visualized through the perforation may be oedematous or even polypoid, pale, or erythematous.

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  • Question 8 - A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blast cells

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age| a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts| pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 9 - An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old girl presents to the paediatric assessment unit with a widespread macular rash. She had a previous history of flu-like illness and sore throat diagnosed as tonsillitis for which she was prescribed Amoxicillin. On examination, she has widespread cervical lymphadenopathy and petechiae on her palate. What is the most likely underlying pathogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein Barr Virus

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely underlying pathogen is the Epstein Barr virus (EBV).An Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection most commonly results in upper respiratory tract symptoms with fever and sore throat. Lymphadenopathy is frequently palpable on examination. Splenomegaly may also occur, and for this reason, patients diagnosed with glandular fever should be advised to avoid contact sports for one month following diagnosis. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is also associated with EBV infection. The vast majority of patients with active EBV infection will develop a widespread rash if given amoxicillin, therefore, phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is recommended for the treatment of a suspected bacterial throat infection to prevent this complication occurring for individuals who have EBV infection.Other options:- Coronavirus: This is one of the causes of the common cold and is frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, the presenting features are more suggestive of an EBV infection.- Group A Streptococcus: Streptococci are classified into two main groups| alpha-haemolytic and beta-haemolytic. Group A Streptococcus belongs to the beta-haemolytic group. Group A streptococcal infection is a common cause of bacterial tonsillitis. It is possible that the child, in this case, had streptococcal tonsillitis and has had a drug reaction to the amoxicillin. However her age, flu-like symptoms and petechiae on her palate all point to an EBV infection and amoxicillin resulting in a rash.- Parainfluenza: Parainfluenza viruses are one of many causes of the common cold and can cause pharyngitis. They are the leading cause of viral croup.- Rhinovirus: Rhinoviruses are one of many causes of the common cold and are frequently responsible for sore throats| however, in this case, are other factors suggesting EBV infection.

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  • Question 10 - The parents of a 5-year-old overweight boy are concerned that the boy is...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 5-year-old overweight boy are concerned that the boy is 'breathing strangely' at night for the past few months now. This is associated with frequent and loud snoring. Furthermore, he seems to have sleep disturbances due to these nocturnal breathing difficulties. This, they feel, is reflected as daytime somnolence in the boy.Clinical examination reveals bilateral tonsillar hypertrophy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for ENT opinion

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management would be to refer the patient for an ENT opinion. Rationale:This child has clinical signs of adenotonsillar hypertrophy, symptoms of persistent snoring and features of obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA). Suspected OSA warrants referral to an ENT specialist. Other options:- Capillary blood gas: The investigation consists of overnight oxygen saturation monitoring or polysomnography.- Chest X-ray: A chest x-ray is not indicated.- Phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is the first-line treatment for tonsillitis. However, with a history of several months and no suggestion of fever or sore throat, acute tonsillitis is unlikely.- Weight loss advice: Obesity is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) amongst other health problems. The child’s weight should be highlighted and advice and support for weight loss provided however referral to ENT is warranted for further investigation.

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  • Question 11 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

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  • Question 12 - A 9-year-old male presented in the emergency room with sudden nosebleed that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old male presented in the emergency room with sudden nosebleed that started 15 minutes ago. Which management step should be taken in such a case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Press soft parts of the nose

      Explanation:

      With children nosebleeds often occur after nose picking and are benign in nature. For active bleeding, pressing of soft parts of the nose is required to stop the bleeding before doing anything else.

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  • Question 13 - A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat when ill

      Explanation:

      At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.

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  • Question 14 - What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch

      Explanation:

      There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.Right Sixth Arch:Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.Left Sixth ArchVentral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus.

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  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.

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  • Question 16 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

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  • Question 17 - What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Embryonic: 4-5 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Lung buds are formed by 4-5 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. Adult numbers of airways proximal to acini are in place.- Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.

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  • Question 18 - A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling and soft stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis is characterized by the abrupt onset of severe symptoms. Without airway control and medical management, symptoms may rapidly progress to respiratory obstruction and death in a matter of hours.Usually, no prodromal symptoms occur in children. Fever is usually the first symptom, and temperatures often reach 40°C. Acute epiglottitis may result in sudden, complete upper airway obstruction. Classic signs in children are four D’s: drooling, dyspnoea, dysphagia, and dysphonia.

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  • Question 19 - An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.

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  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture

      Explanation:

      Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.

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  • Question 21 - A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.

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  • Question 22 - Where does Stensens duct primarily open? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does Stensens duct primarily open?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opposite the second molar tooth

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct (Stensen’s duct), which provides an exit for the gland’s secretions, passes through the anterior edge of the gland in the superficial lobe, turns medially at the anterior border of the masseter, penetrates the buccinator, then enters the oral cavity lateral to the second maxillary molar.

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  • Question 23 - A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial X ray

      Explanation:

      The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.

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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.

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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old pre-schooler complains of ear pain and fever. He has taken paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old pre-schooler complains of ear pain and fever. He has taken paracetamol several times for relief. It is noted that he increases the volume of the television and has a symmetric loss of 40db on a hearing test. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis externa

      Explanation:

      Increasing the volume of the TV and the child’s loss of hearing may suggest that he has otitis media with effusion but the fever and the ear pain and fever strongly points to otitis externa as the diagnosis.

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  • Question 26 - An 8-year-old girl presented to the outpatient clinic with fever, pain and discharge...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presented to the outpatient clinic with fever, pain and discharge from her left ear. Which of the following antibiotics should be used first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin has high efficacy against haemophilus influenza and streptococcus pneumonia, the most common organisms of otitis media. It is an oral drug with high bioavailability.

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  • Question 27 - A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that moves with tongue protrusion. The swelling is present between the thyroid cartilage and the tongue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      The thyroglossal duct cyst is the most common congenital anomaly of the central portion of the neck. The thyroglossal duct cyst is intimately related to the central portion of the hyoid bone and usually elevates along with the larynx during swallowing. Thyroglossal cysts can be defined as an irregular neck mass or a lump which develops from cells and tissues left over after the formation of the thyroid gland during the developmental stages.

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  • Question 28 - A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the hospital. The parents are now asking for advice on how to manage future occurrences at home. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turn the child on his back and give thumps

      Explanation:

      Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.

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  • Question 29 - A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents with bilateral, erythematous and bulging tympanic membranes. His parents claim the boy also has hearing difficulty. Otoscopy reveals an effusion on the left side. Doctors suggest to perform Weber and Rinne tests. Which of the following is consistent with a left-sided middle ear effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weber’s localising to left, Rinne negative on left, Rinne positive on right

      Explanation:

      When a child does not hear the sound in the middle during Weber test, it means they either they have a conductive hearing loss on the side they hear the sound, or a sensorineural hearing loss on the opposite side. Rinne’s test helps distinguish between the two. In this particular case, the hearing loss is most probably conductive due to the middle ear effusion. Therefore, Weber’s test should be localised to the left and Rinne’s should be positive on the right.

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  • Question 30 - A young family is to fly abroad on holiday with their 3 year...

    Incorrect

    • A young family is to fly abroad on holiday with their 3 year old son who had grommets inserted 5 weeks ago for otitis media with effusion. The mother is concerned about traveling so she presents to the clinic with questions. The following should be discouraged for children with grommets:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immersion of the head in soapy water

      Explanation:

      Grommets are small tubes surgically inserted into the tympanic membrane to drain viscous inflammatory fluid found in the middle ear in bilateral otitis media with effusion of more than three months duration. There is no indication against using in ear headphones or flying. Swimming or snorkelling can be reinforced with ear plugs. However immersion of the child’s head in soapy water is to be avoided as the water is more likely to enter the ear.

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  • Question 31 - A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.

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  • Question 32 - What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.7

      Explanation:

      The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%. The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.

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  • Question 33 - A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which among the following nerves carries the sensation from the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the primary sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The lesser palatine nerve makes a smaller contribution. Because of this, otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.Anatomical Rationale:Each palatine tonsil has two surfaces, a medial surface which projects into the pharynx and a lateral surface that is embedded in the wall of the pharynx.The primary arterial supply is from the tonsillar artery, a branch of the facial artery. Its veins pierce the constrictor muscle to join the external palatine or facial veins. The external palatine vein is immediately lateral to the tonsil, which may result in bleeding during a tonsillectomy.Lymphatic drainage is the jugulodigastric node and the deep cervical nodes.TonsillitisThe inflammation of tonsils is usually due to bacterial aetiology (50%) – group A Streptococcus, the remainder of the causes are viral.May be complicated by the development of an abscess (quinsy), which may distort the uvula.Indications for tonsillectomy include recurrent acute tonsillitis, and enlargement causing sleep apnoea.Dissection tonsillectomy is the preferred technique with haemorrhage being the most frequent complication. Delayed otalgia may occur owing to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

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  • Question 34 - A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits she often has to repeat herself to be heard. History reveals that the girl often watches television in high volume. Weber test reveals that the sounds are louder on the left side. What can you conclude from these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.

      Explanation:

      To get more information regarding hearing loss, a physician should perform both Rinne and Weber tests. Weber test alone cannot tell which side is affected.Rinne test – a vibrating tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) is placed initially on the mastoid process behind each ear until sound is no longer heard. Then, without re-striking the fork, the fork is then quickly placed just outside the ear with the patient asked to report when the sound caused by the vibration is no longer heard. A normal or positive Rinne test is when sound is still heard when the tuning fork is moved to air near the ear (air conduction or AC), indicating that AC is equal or greater than (bone conduction or BC).Weber’s test – tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears. The patient is then asked which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side however in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side.

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  • Question 35 - A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.

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  • Question 36 - A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother with a history of a swelling on the right side of his neck that is extending from the angle of mouth to the middle 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid muscle. On examination the swelling was on the anterolateral aspect of the muscle and was found to be brilliantly transilluminant. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphangioma

      Explanation:

      A lymphangioma is a swelling or mass that occurs mainly in the head, neck, and mouth. Lymphangiomas are the result of a congenital condition and are usually apparent at birth, or at least by the time a person is 2 years old. It is rare in adult population and when detected, it can be treated with surgical excision. Branchial cyst in most cases does not transilluminate which lymphangioma does.

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  • Question 37 - An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary sinus

      Explanation:

      The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. Other options:- The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor. – The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident. – The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. – The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture.

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  • Question 38 - During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

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  • Question 39 - A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the ear has been itchy over the past few days but has become excruciatingly painful today. On examination, she appears uncomfortable at rest but otherwise well. Her observations are within normal limits. Otoscopy is difficult as the girl flinches in pain, the ear canal appears oedematous. The tympanic membrane is difficult to see with oedema and discharge present in the external canal. The oropharynx seems normal with no erythema or tonsillar exudate. What is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the patient has features suggestive of acute otitis externa, which can be managed with topic antibiotics.Otitis externa:It can be classified as acute (< 3 weeks) or chronic (> 3 months). Frequent exposure to water, e.g. swimming, is a risk factor for the condition. Itching, pain, hearing loss and discharge are common complaints. Examination demonstrates oedema of the external auditory canal with discharge. Pain may be elicited on the movement of the tragus or pinna. First-line treatment is with topical drops/sprays for one week. Acidic preparations such as 2% acetic acid, antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations may be used (1% hydrocortisone and 0.3% gentamicin). Acetic acid can be used as the first-line treatment for mild cases without discharge or hearing impairment. On selecting an appropriate topical preparation remember that topical aminoglycosides are contraindicated if the tympanic membrane is perforated and that chloramphenicol ear drops cause contact dermatitis in approximately 10% of people. Clinoquinol, a combination of antibacterial and antifungal, may be preferred over aminoglycoside containing preparations due to the theoretical lower risk of ototoxicity and dermatitis. However, there is no clear evidence to support the use of one topical preparation over another.Other options:- Admit for IV antibiotics: First line management is with analgesia and topical antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations. Thus, IV antibiotics is not an appropriate action.- Oral antibiotics: Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin or erythromycin are considered only for severe infections such as the spread of cellulitis beyond the ear canal. – Reassurance is not sufficient to treat these patients. They require topic antibiotic therapy.- Referral to ENT: Should be considered only in case of treatment failure. ENT referral can also be considered if there is cellulitis extending past the margin of the external ear canal, extreme pain or extensive swelling and discharge likely to require suction or the insertion of an ear wick. Urgent ENT referral is reserved for suspected cases of malignant otitis externa (with the extension of the condition into the adjacent bone and spreading osteomyelitis).

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  • Question 40 - A 4 year old boy, who is mentally unstable, accidentally shoves a pea...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy, who is mentally unstable, accidentally shoves a pea into his ear while eating. Otoscopic examination reveals a green coloured object in the ear canal. Which of the following would be the best approach to get rid of the pea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Under GA

      Explanation:

      For Otorhinolaryngologist, removal of foreign bodies (FB) from the ear, nose and throat is one of the common emergency procedures done. Most of the cases especially of the ear and nose can be managed without General Anaesthesia (GA). But in some cases GA may be needed. As the child is mentally unstable, he is unlikely to be able to hold still while the foreign body (pea) is being removed with a forceps, which could result in instrumental damage to the ear canal. Pea is an organic foreign body and not metallic hence the use of magnets would not be of any help either. From the options provided, general anaesthesia would be the best option in this child.

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  • Question 41 - An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall health is normal and clinical examination reveals no discharge, hearing loss or fever. Just by looking at it, the pinna of the ear looks swollen and red. Also, pushing the tragus leads to pain. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous external auditory canal and an otherwise healthy tympanic membrane. The bony external canal courses through which bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal bone

      Explanation:

      The external auditory canal (EAC) extends from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Its lateral portion is fibrocartilaginous and its medial portion is bony. Its bony portion is formed by the tympanic portion of the temporal bone.

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  • Question 42 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.

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  • Question 43 - A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma

      Explanation:

      Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.

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  • Question 44 - A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in his left ear. Which of the following can be considered as the most appropriate method to remove the insect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syringe the ear with warm water

      Explanation:

      Removal of foreign bodies from the ear is indicated whenever a well-visualized foreign body is identified in the external auditory canal. Insects are better extracted with suction than with forceps or hooks. From the given answers, irrigation with warm water is the most suitable answer.

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  • Question 45 - Which of the following types best describe the epithelium on the external aspect...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types best describe the epithelium on the external aspect of the tympanic membrane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous

      Explanation:

      The external aspect of the tympanic membrane is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. Clinical correlation: Following middle ear infections, this type of epithelium can migrate into the middle ear through a perforated tympanic membrane.The ear is composed of three anatomically distinct regions: – External ear: Auricle is composed of elastic cartilage covered by skin. The lobule has no cartilage and contains fat and fibrous tissue. External auditory meatus is variable in length, measuring approximately 2.5cm long in fully grown children. Lateral third of the external auditory meatus is cartilaginous, and the medial two-thirds is bony. The greater auricular nerve innervates the region. The auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve supplies most of the external auditory meatus and the lateral surface of the auricle. – Middle ear: It is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea. The aditus leads to the mastoid air cells is the route through which middle ear infections may cause mastoiditis. Anteriorly the eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. The tympanic membrane consists of an outer layer of stratified squamous epithelium, a middle layer of fibrous tissue and an inner layer of mucous membrane continuous with the middle ear. The chorda tympani nerve passes on the medial side of the pars flaccida. The glossopharyngeal nerve and pain innervate the middle ear. Thus, pain may radiate to the middle ear following tonsillectomy. – Ossicles:Malleus attaches to the tympanic membrane (the Umbo). Malleus articulates with the incus (synovial joint). Incus attaches to stapes (another synovial joint). – Internal ear:It consists of the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibule. Organ of Corti is the sense organ of hearing and is located on the inside of the cochlear duct on the basilar membrane. Vestibule accommodates the utricle and the saccule. These structures contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph within the vestibule. The semicircular canals lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone. All share a common opening into the vestibule.

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  • Question 46 - A 5 year old boy presents with tonsillitis, from which he has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy presents with tonsillitis, from which he has suffered three times last year. His symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy and a sore throat. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol/ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NICE does not recommend the use of antibiotics or tonsillectomy in this case. Paracetamol/Ibuprofen are indicated as they provide antipyretic action and analgesia. Indications for tonsillectomy are 5 or more episodes of acute sore throat/year, symptoms present for at least 2 years, symptoms are severe enough to disrupt a child’s social life. Indications for antibiotics are features of marked systemic upset secondary to the acute sore throat, unilateral peritonsillitis, history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, acute tonsillitis with 3 or more of the following: history of fever, tonsillar exudates, no cough and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.

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  • Question 47 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother with a 24-hour history of coryza and irritability. On examination, she was found to have a temperature of 37.7 C, a harsh cough, stridor at rest, and moderate respiratory distress.Which of the following treatments is indicated in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone 1-2mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Among the treatment options provided, the most appropriate would be prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg.Other options:- Dexamethasone 0.15 mg per kg is the correct dose based on new trials and BNF guidance.- Inhaled budesonide 2mg would be a more appropriate dose.- Nebulised adrenaline may also be used.Croup:Laryngotracheobronchitis caused most commonly by parainfluenza virus. It most commonly affects children between 6 months to 3 years.Seasonal peaks: Most prevalent in autumn and spring.It starts as viral URTI then progresses to barking cough and a hoarse cry. Stridor and respiratory distress may occur. The illness can last from two days to 2 weeks.Relevant differential diagnoses include epiglottitis (the child will be septic with high temp and drooling) and inhaled foreign body.All children with moderate/severe croup should be given one dose of oral dexamethasone.Further doses may be needed if children have rebound symptoms.

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  • Question 48 - An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been holding onto her both ears and crying out of pain. This has been going on for about a week and there has been no improvement in the pain despite using paracetamol and ibuprofen. On examination, the child is febrile, and her pulse is 130 beats per minute. the tympanic membranes are red and bulging on both sides. What is the most appropriate course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of acute otitis media should begin with adequate analgesia. Antibiotic therapy can be deferred in children two years or older with mild symptoms. Antibiotics should be prescribed immediately if:- Symptoms lasting more than 4 days or not improving- Systemically unwell but not requiring admission- Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease- Younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media- Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canaHigh-dose amoxicillin (80 to 90 mg per kg per day) is the antibiotic of choice for treating acute otitis media in patients who are not allergic to penicillin, otherwise erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given.

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  • Question 49 - A 8 year old boy presented with acute onset of nasal obstruction. His...

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    • A 8 year old boy presented with acute onset of nasal obstruction. His parents gave a recent history of nasal trauma. On examination he was febrile and his nasal bones were straight. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septal abscess

      Explanation:

      History of fever is suggestive of an infective focus. A straight nasal bones excludes a nasal bone fracture. A nasal septal abscess is defined as a collection of pus between the cartilage or bony septum and it is an uncommon disease which should be suspected in a patient with acute onset of nasal obstruction and recent history of nasal trauma.

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  • Question 50 - A 6 year old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of...

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    • A 6 year old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of nasal bleeding which started 3 days before. Now on examination, there is no bleeding and only slight redness of the anterior mucosa is present. Which of the following steps is the most suitable now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Epistaxis is common in younger children usually due to nose picking. After the episode is over no active management is required and reassurance should be given to the patient and his attendants.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (3/4) 75%
Passmed