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  • Question 1 - What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 25 in 1000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after having four pregnancies before the age of 30. She has to wear a 'pad' inside her pants all of the time because of this condition. She isn't on any hormone replacement therapy at the moment. Which of the following signs indicates that the incontinence is most likely true stress incontinence?

      Your Answer: When she gets the feeling she has to void, she has to do so quickly or she wets herself.

      Correct Answer: Only small quantities of urine ore lost each time she is incontinent.

      Explanation:

      Only little volumes of urine are lost when her intra-abdominal pressure is elevated during coughing, laughing, jumping, and straining, which is the only symptom associated with real stress incontinence.
      The other reactions are significantly more compatible with a detrusor instability diagnosis (also called urge incontinence).
      If she had incontinence throughout pregnancy, it would have been stress in nature, which is what her current incontinence is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      88.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist in breast tissue but it acts as a partial oestrogen agonist on the endometrium increasing the risk of hyperplasia and has been linked to endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen improves bone density in post-menopausal women. It is an off license treatment for gynaecomastia. Reduced lactation is a potential side effect of Tamoxifen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin...

    Correct

    • The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin gestation is:

      Your Answer: Preterm delivery

      Explanation:

      Twin pregnancy is associated with a number of obstetric complications, some of them with serious perinatal consequences, especially for the second twin. The rate of perinatal mortality can be up to six times higher in twin compared to singleton pregnancies, largely due to higher rates of preterm delivery and fetal growth restriction seen in twin pregnancies. Preterm birth and birth weight are also significant determinants of morbidity and mortality into infancy and childhood. More than 50% of twins and almost all triplets are born before 37 weeks of gestation and about 15–20% of admissions to neonatal units are associated with preterm twins and triplets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient has returned to your clinic. She presented with painful periods 18...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has returned to your clinic. She presented with painful periods 18 months earlier and laparoscopy confirmed endometriosis. She now gets pain on opening her bowels as well as low back pain. What structure is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Psoas muscle

      Correct Answer: Uterosacral ligament

      Explanation:

      Lower abdominal pain during menstrual periods and lower back or leg pain are associated with endometriosis in the uterosacral ligaments. Endometriosis can cause diarrhoea and IBS type symptoms. Note Endometriosis on the uterosacral ligament can cause tender nodules to form. These can be palpated during pelvic exam. Tender nodules are specific to endometriosis of the uterosacral ligament so if the question mentions feeling a tender nodule during PV exam think endometriosis of the Uterosacral ligaments!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Correct

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      95.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum

      Explanation:

      Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - During wound healing collagen alignment along tension lines is part of which phase?...

    Correct

    • During wound healing collagen alignment along tension lines is part of which phase?

      Your Answer: Remodelling

      Explanation:

      Realignment of collagen is part of the remodelling phase. Remodelling is usually underway by week 3. Maximum tensile wound strength is typically achieved by week 12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
      Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.

      What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended...

    Correct

    • Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended by the WHO for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 75g OGTT with 2 hour glucose

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral 75g glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient who is 12 weeks pregnant is being seen in the antenatal...

    Correct

    • A patient who is 12 weeks pregnant is being seen in the antenatal clinic. Urinalysis shows protein ++. A 24 hour urine collection is organised. Greater than what level would indicate significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer: 300 mg over 24 hours

      Explanation:

      pre-eclampsia is defined as hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive...

    Incorrect

    • A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive again. She has just completed chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

      Your Answer: 6 months from completion of treatment

      Correct Answer: 1 year from completion of treatment

      Explanation:

      According to the RCOG greentop guidelines, a women who have underdone chemotherapy for GTD are advised not to conceive for 1 years after completion of the chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Correct

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The GI tract forms from the endoderm. The endoderm grows laterally and then ventrally finally folding on its self to form the gut tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - According to NICE guidance what should be used for wound cleansing for the...

    Incorrect

    • According to NICE guidance what should be used for wound cleansing for the first 48 hours postoperatively?

      Your Answer: Povidone iodine solution

      Correct Answer: Sterile saline

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines (CG74) advise the following regarding postoperative wound management Use sterile saline for wound cleansing up to 48 hours after surgery. Advise patients that they may shower safely 48 hours after surgery. Use tap water for wound cleansing after 48 hours if the surgical wound has separated or has been surgically opened to drain pus. Do not use topical antimicrobial agents for surgical wounds that are healing by primary intention to reduce the risk of surgical site infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 76 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C
      Fetal heart rate: 144/min

      On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile.

      Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.

      For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.

      If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.

      A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.

      Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal mortality? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common cause of maternal mortality?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Cardiac disease

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of maternal mortality is Cardiovascular deaths due to post partum bleeding followed by hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, sepsis and complications of labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.

      Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Painful abdominal bloating

      Correct Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 19 year old patient on Lamotrigine 125 mg twice a day for...

    Correct

    • A 19 year old patient on Lamotrigine 125 mg twice a day for the past two years has recently been prescribed Microgynon 30 as a contraceptive before she leaves for Uni. What could the main concern be?

      Your Answer: Combined contraceptive may reduce Lamotrigine levels and increase seizure risk

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine, a drug used to treat epilepsy, is less effective when taken with combined oral contraceptives. The oestrogen component of the pill decreases the circulating levels of Lamotrigine, increasing the risk of seizures. The combination is therefore classified as a UKMEC 3, as the risk of the drug combination may outweigh the benefit. As an alternative, the progesterone-only pill, depo progesterone, Mirena or the copper IUD may be considered as there is no restriction on concomitant use. Lamotrigine is not metabolised through cytochrome P450 like other antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine and phenytoin, neither is it an enzyme inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      61.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer: L3,L4,L5 and S1

      Correct Answer: S2,S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.

      She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.

      Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.

      Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.

      Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      97.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements regarding BRCA gene mutations is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding BRCA gene mutations is true?

      Your Answer: None of the above statements are true

      Correct Answer: They account for around 25% of inherited breast cancers

      Explanation:

      Hereditary breast cancers account for 10 % of the cases. BRCA gene mutations account for 25 % of these cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The ovarian artery is a branch of the: ...

    Correct

    • The ovarian artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The ovarian artery is an artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the ovary in females. It arises from the abdominal aorta below the renal artery. It can be found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary, anterior to the ovarian vein and ureter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She complains of migraine two to three times a month for the last 6 months.
      What should be best appropriate advice to her?

      Your Answer: Stop combined oral contraceptive pills and prescribe progestogen only pills

      Explanation:

      While on combination oral contraceptive tablets, this patient had a migraine. After a conversation about adverse effects, stop the combo medications and prescribe her progestogen-only pills.
      The following are reasons why progestogen-only pills should be your first choice:
      1-Age of 45 or more years
      2-Smokers who are 45 years old or older
      3-Oestrogen contraindications
      4-Melitus Diabetes
      5-A headache (combined oral contraceptive pills have absolute contraindication)
      6-Hypertension under control
      7-Lactation
      8-Chloasma.

      Pregnancy, undetected genital tract bleeding, and concurrent use of enzyme-inducing medications are all contraindications to using progestogen-only pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules...

    Correct

    • A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be:

      Your Answer: Reassurance after thorough examination

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is reassurance after thorough examination. Most breast lesions diagnosed during pregnancy and lactation, even some specific ones such as lactation and adenoma galactocele, are benign. The diagnosis of breast cancer, which is difficult to elucidate and is less common among women who are pregnant or lactating than among those of the same age who are not, continues to be a challenge for clinicians.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Prolactin is the hormone that is responsible for the production of milk (Lactogenesis). Oxytocin is responsible for the let down reflex during suckling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due to spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and delivered at term via vaginal delivery. 24 hours since rupture of her membranes, no spontaneous labour was noted, hence a syntocinon/oxytocin infusion (10 units in 1L of Hartmann solution) was started at 3DmL/hour and increased to 120 mL over 9 hours. After 10 hours of infusion, during which Syntocinon dosage was increased to 30 units per litre, contractions were noted. Which is the most common complication of Syntocinon infusion?

      Your Answer: Fetal distress.

      Explanation:

      In this case, induction of labour at 37 weeks of gestation was necessary due to the absence of spontaneous of labour 24 hours after rupture of membranes. High doses of Syntocin and large volume of fluids may be required particularly when induction is done before term.

      Syntocin infusion can lead to uterine hypertonus and tetany which can result in fetal distress at any dosage. This is a common reason to decrease or stop the infusion and an indication for Caesarean delivery due to fetal distress

      Uterine rupture can occur as a result of Syntocin infusion especially when the accompanying fluids do not contain electrolytes, which puts the patient at risk for water intoxication.

      Maternal hypotension results from Syntocin infusion, not hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Correct Answer: Adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: T12,L1

      Correct Answer: L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is the main biochemical buffer in urine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in urine?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate and ammonia are the major urinary buffers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      153.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of a pregnancy before 20 weeks in Australia?

      Your Answer: Misoprostol

      Correct Answer: Suction and curettage

      Explanation:

      Medical abortion is preferred from 4 to 9 weeks of gestation and in Australia, suction curettage is the most frequently used method of abortion as it is considered useful from 6 to 14 weeks of gestation.

      Mifepristone is a synthetic anti-progesterone, which is found to be effective for abortion when combined with misoprostol. There are evidences which suggest the effectiveness of misoprostol and mifepristone in both first and second trimesters. It is most commonly administered as a single dose of mifepristone followed by misoprostol, a prostaglandin, given orally or vaginally two days later. Prostaglandin can be repeated at an interval of 4 hours if required.
      As the vaginal use shows only few gastrointestinal side effects Misoprostol is more effective and better tolerated vaginally than orally. Misoprostol is not approved for its use in termination of pregnancy, but is available in the market due to its indications in other conditions.
      Methotrexate can be used orally or as an intramuscular injection followed by misoprostol up to seven days later, but this also is not a preferred method for termination of pregnancy in Australia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Regarding implantation, how many days after fertilisation does it typically occur? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding implantation, how many days after fertilisation does it typically occur?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tubes after ovulation. The zygote moves through the fallopian tube and implants in the endometrium about 7-9 days after fertilisation, or 6-12 days after ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac fossa pain while getting up from a chair and has been coughing and sneezing.

      On examination, there is no palpable mass or rebound tenderness.

      What will be the most likely cause for patient's complaint?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction

      Correct Answer: Round ligament strain

      Explanation:

      Patient’s symptoms and signs are suggestive of round ligament strain, which is a normal finding during pregnancy, especially in the 2nd trimester, and it does not require any medical intervention.

      Round ligament is a rope-like fibromuscular band which extends from the anterolateral aspect of uterus anteriorly between the layers of the broad ligament, and passing through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal.
      A sharp, sudden spasm in the right iliac fossa which lasts for a few seconds which is usually triggered by sneezing, coughing, laughing and rolling over in bed are the common presentations of a round ligament pain.

      Ectopic pregnancy and rupture of ectopic pregnancy are two unlikely diagnosis in this patient as she is in the second trimester of her pregnancy, whereas both the mentioned conditions occur during the first trimester.

      Although appendicitis presents with pain in right iliac fossa, the pain is not causes by coughing or sneezing. Also, there will be other symptoms like tenderness and rebound tenderness in right iliac fossa in case of appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      85.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except?

      Your Answer: Indications for episiotomy include avoiding an imminent perineal tear, the use of forceps, breech delivery, & the delivery of premature infants

      Correct Answer: The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be in speeding up delivery

      Explanation:

      The best time of the episiotomy is when the presenting part becomes visible during the contractions. If the episiotomy is performed at the proper time, less time will be required for the delivery. However, if its done too late, it causes excessive stretching of the pelvic floor and further potential lacerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist?

      Your Answer: Ritodrine

      Correct Answer: Atosiban

      Explanation:

      Atosiban is a modified form of oxytocin that is administered by intravenous infusion for 2–48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not having menstrual periods over the last 6 months. She had her first menstrual periods at the age of 13 and they have been consistent since then with a cycle of 28 days. She reports that she had an unplanned pregnancy 8 months ago and did an elective abortion at the 8th week of gestation. Since that time she has not had menstrual periods. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. The pregnancy test is negative.
      Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: TSH and prolactin levels

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, most likely caused by Asherman’s syndrome- Secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menstruation for – 3 months in a patient who had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- Asherman’s syndrome as the cause of her amenorrhea is suggested by its beginning shortly after undergoing elective abortion. It is an outflow tract obstruction caused by intrauterine synechiae resulting from the procedure.

      The best diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis is hysteroscopy. It can allow visualization of the uterine cavity, the nature and extent of intrauterine synechiae.

      → Progesterone withdrawal test is one of the diagnostic studies done in the early work-up of secondary amenorrhoea- It is usually followed by the estrogen-progesterone challenge test and other tests. Progesterone withdrawal test alone would not confirm Asherman’s syndrome.
      → Pelvic ultrasound is more useful in primary amenorrhea work-up when the presence or absence of the uterus is to be confirmed- It is not very useful in the evaluation of intrauterine adhesions.
      → Brain MRI is useful in confirming the presence of pituitary tumours in patients, who are found to have high levels of prolactin. This patient’s most likely cause of secondary amenorrhea is Asherman’s syndrome.
      → TSH and prolactin levels should be the next step in the work-up of secondary amenorrhea after pregnancy has been ruled out; however, these studies cannot confirm Asherman’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      131.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?

      Your Answer: Starting HRT in a woman who clearly has advanced AD is of value in reducing the severity of the disease.

      Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
      Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
      Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.

      Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
      GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.

      Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
      If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
      What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer: Oral oestrogen

      Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up.

      On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal.

      When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer: Gestational diabetes

      Correct Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane

      Explanation:

      This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”.  Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).

      An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
      Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.

      Causes of oligohydramnios
      a) Maternal causes includes:
      – Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
      – Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
      b) Placental causes are:
      – Abruption of placenta
      – Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
      – Placental thrombosis or infarction
      c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
      – Chromosomal abnormalities
      – Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
      – Growth restriction
      – Demise
      – Post-term pregnancy
      – Ruptured fetal membranes
      – Infections
      – Idiopathic causes

      During First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.

      During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.

      During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      90.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal...

    Correct

    • In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.

      From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage

      Explanation:

      A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour

      If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.

      Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.

      No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.

      Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
      All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 36 year old patient is seen in clinic for follow up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old patient is seen in clinic for follow up of a vaginal biopsy which confirms cancer. What is the most common type?

      Your Answer: Melanoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vaginal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Delayed puberty in girls is defined as? ...

    Incorrect

    • Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?

      Your Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 15 years old

      Correct Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old

      Explanation:

      Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Ductus Arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal abnormalities

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous abortion is the loss of pregnancy naturally before twenty weeks of gestation. Colloquially, spontaneous abortion is referred to as a ‘miscarriage’ to avoid association with induced abortion. Early pregnancy loss refers only to spontaneous abortion in the first trimester. In 50% of cases, early pregnancy loss is believed to be due to fetal chromosomal abnormalities. Advanced maternal age and previous early pregnancy loss are the most common risk factors. For example, the incidence of early pregnancy loss in women 20-30 years of age is only 9 to 17%, while the incidence at 45 years of maternal age is 80%. Other risk factors include alcohol consumption, smoking, and cocaine use.

      Several chronic diseases can precipitate spontaneous abortion, including diabetes, celiac disease, and autoimmune conditions, particularly anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome. Rapid conception after delivery and infections, such as cervicitis, vaginitis, HIV infection, syphilis, and malaria, are also common risk factors. Another important risk factor is exposure to environmental contaminants, including arsenic, lead, and organic solvents. Finally, structural uterine abnormalities, such as congenital anomalies, leiomyoma, and intrauterine adhesions, have been shown to increase the risk of spontaneous abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.

      Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer: Serum thyroxine.

      Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.

      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: She should use intrauterine contraceptive device

      Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg

      Explanation:

      Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:

      Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
      Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
      If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
      Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparation

      All other options are not acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: All fours manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Call for help.
      • Ensure personnel are available to ‘scribe’.
      Document the time the head delivered, which shoulder is anterior (this is the arm most vulnerable to injury) and the times at which each manoeuvre is employed.
      • Drop the level of the delivery bed as low as it will go, and flatten the back of the bed so the woman is completely flat. Remove the foot of the bed to allow access.
      • Assess for and perform an episiotomy, if needed.
      • Using one assistant on each of the mother’s legs, flex and abduct the legs at the hip (thighs to abdomen, known as McRoberts manoeuvre). This flattens the lumbosacral spine and will facilitate delivery is around 90 per cent of cases.
      • If this fails, suprapubic pressure should be
      applied by another assistant. This should be
      applied over the posterior aspect of the anterior fetal shoulder and will act to push the shoulders together. It can be used in a constant and then rocking motion.
      • If both these fail, then internal manoeuvres are necessary. The order of these will depend on the skill and experience of the person conducting the delivery and the individual case. These manoeuvres have been named after famous obstetricians, but it is the process rather than the name that is important:
      • An attempt can be made to rotate the baby, so that the shoulders enter the diagonal to allow delivery. The first procedure is usually to insert a hand behind the anterior shoulder, and push it towards the chest (Rubin II). This will adduct the shoulders then push them into the diagonal. This can be combined with pressure on the
      anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder
      to aid rotation (Woods’ screw). If this fails,
      an attempt can be made to rotate the baby
      in the opposite direction (reverse Woods’
      screw). Delivery of the posterior arm can be
      attempted passing a hand into the vagina, in
      front of the posterior shoulder and deliver
      the posterior arm by swinging it in front of
      the fetal chest.
      If these all fail, the patient can be moved on to all fours as this increases the anterior–posterior diameter of the inlet. In this position, the posterior arm can be delivered.
      After this, manoeuvres of last resort include a symphysiotomy, in which the maternal symphysis is divided, Zavanelli’s, in which the head is reduced back into the vagina and a Caesarean section performed and intentional fracture of the fetal
      clavicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - In girls what is the first sign of puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • In girls what is the first sign of puberty?

      Your Answer: Acne

      Correct Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of puberty in females is the development of breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology (4/10) 40%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (8/12) 67%
Clinical Management (7/9) 78%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (2/5) 40%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Embryology (2/3) 67%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Passmed