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  • Question 1 - An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of the following clinical features will have prompted the doctor to check the serum magnesium level in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterised by a low level of magnesium in the blood. The normal range for serum magnesium level is 0.75-1.05 mmol/l. In hypomagnesaemia serum levels of magnesium are less than 0.75 mmol/l. The cardiovascular and nervous systems are the most commonly affected. Neuromuscular manifestations include symptoms like tremor, tetany, weakness, apathy, delirium, a positive Chvostek and Trousseau sign, nystagmus and seizures. Cardiovascular manifestations include electrocardiographic abnormalities and arrhythmias e.g. ventricular fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the past few months. He also has noted blood in his sputum. The patient has no other major health conditions. Which of the following investigative procedures should be done first?

      Your Answer: Sputum cytology

      Explanation:

      Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test used for the examination of sputum under a microscope to determine if abnormal cells are present. It may be used as the first diagnostic procedure to help detect a suspected lung cancer or certain non-cancerous lung conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?

      Your Answer: Recycling of old red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells found in the liver are part of the monocyte-reticular system. They are specialised macrophages and primarily function to recycle old and damaged RBCs. The RBCs are phagocytosed and the haemoglobin is broken down into haem and globin. The haem is further broken down into iron that is recycled and bilirubin that is conjugated with glucuronic acid and excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by...

    Incorrect

    • A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by the doctor they found that the diaphragm and the scapula were unaffected however the patient could not abduct his arm. When helped with abducting his arm to 45 degrees he was able to continue the movement. This means that he was unable to initiate abduction. Where is the likely site of injury?

      Your Answer: Roots of the plexus

      Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of ability to initiate abduction means paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle. This muscle is supplied by the supraclavicular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic aneurysm. Her blood pressure was low throughout the intra-operative and the post-operative period, along with increasing serum creatinine and urea. Microscopic examination of her urine showed multiple granular and hyaline casts. What is the likely condition the patient is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Correct Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      The most common predisposing factor leading to acute tubular necrosis is ischemia, typically seen in hospitalized patients with low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.

      Your Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the obturator foramen

      Correct Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically...

    Incorrect

    • Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically ill patients, and can be triggered by events such as trauma and sepsis. Which of the following variables is most likely to be lower than normal in a patient with ARDS?

      Your Answer: Work of breathing

      Correct Answer: Lung compliance

      Explanation:

      Acute (or Adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition occurring in critically ill patients characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs. The development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) starts with damage to the alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium, resulting in increased permeability to plasma and inflammatory cells. These cells pass into the interstitium and alveolar space, resulting in pulmonary oedema. Damage to the surfactant-producing type II cells and the presence of protein-rich fluid in the alveolar space disrupt the production and function of pulmonary surfactant, leading to micro atelectasis and impaired gas exchange. The pathophysiological consequences of lung oedema in ARDS include a decrease in lung volumes, compliance and large intrapulmonary shunts. ARDS may be seen in the setting of pneumonia, sepsis, following trauma, multiple blood transfusions, severe burns, severe pancreatitis, near-drowning, drug reactions, or inhalation injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who...

    Incorrect

    • A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:

      Your Answer: Hilum

      Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.

      The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.

      Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.

      The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      137
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where...

    Incorrect

    • A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where physical examination reveals that he has limited extension of his right humerus. Which of the following nerves is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extension of the humerus is a function of the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve which is a branch of the posterior cord of the plexus whose fibres are derived from cranial nerves V, VI and VII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The deep planter artery is a branch of the: ...

    Correct

    • The deep planter artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The deep plantar artery is a branch of the dorsalis pedis artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused...

    Incorrect

    • Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused by ischaemia in the lateral part of the medulla oblongata and is commonly associated with numerous neurological symptoms. Which of the following arteries when occluded leads to this condition?

      Your Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar

      Explanation:

      The lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg’s disease is also known as posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome (PICA). This syndrome is a clinical manifestation of the occlusion of the posterior cerebellar artery that results in symptoms of infarction of the lateral medullary oblongata. Other arteries that contribute to blood flow in to this region such are the vertebral artery, superior middle cerebellar and inferior medullary arteries can also result to this syndrome when occluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells?

      Your Answer: Skin

      Explanation:

      Dendritic cells are part of the immune system and they function mainly as antigen presenting cells. They are present in small quantities in tissues which are in contact in the external environment. Mainly in the skin and to a lesser extent in the lining of the nose, lungs, stomach and intestines. In the skin they are known as Langerhans cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 48-year-old man smoker presented to the doctor complaining of a persistent cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man smoker presented to the doctor complaining of a persistent cough and shortness of breath. A chest X-ray indicated the presence of a right upper lung mass. Biopsy of the mass revealed the presence of pink cells with large, irregular nuclei. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell carcinoma, is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that accounts for approximately 30% of all lung cancers. The presence of squamous cell carcinoma is often related with a long history of smoking and the presence of persistent respiratory symptoms. Chest radiography usually shows the presence of a proximal airway lesion. Histological findings include keratinisation that takes the form of keratin pearls with pink cytoplasm and cells with large, irregular nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer: Receptive aphasia

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient with Paget's disease of the bone is predisposed to developing which...

    Correct

    • A patient with Paget's disease of the bone is predisposed to developing which type of cancer?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone (PDB) is a focal disorder of bone. It is presumed benign in nature and mediated by abnormal osteoclast function. However osteosarcomas may occur in <1% of patients with Paget's disease of the bone. Osteosarcomas are osteogenic in origin, and consistently arise in sites of pagetic bone. This is not to be confused with Paget's disease of the breast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should...

    Correct

    • Different substances have different renal clearance rates. Which of the following substances should have the lowest renal clearance rate in a healthy patient?

      Your Answer: Glucose

      Explanation:

      Under normal conditions the renal clearance of glucose is zero, since glucose is completely reabsorbed in the renal tubules and not excreted. Glycosuria – the excretion of glucose into the urine- is nearly always caused by elevated blood glucose levels, most commonly due to untreated diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal...

    Correct

    • During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:

      Your Answer: Second costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      10.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Fluids & Electrolytes (2/3) 67%
Pathology (5/8) 63%
Respiratory (1/3) 33%
Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (3/8) 38%
Upper Limb (0/2) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (0/1) 0%
General (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Passmed