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Question 1
Incorrect
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The lamina propria contains all of the following except:
Your Answer: Plasma cells
Correct Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:The connective tissue of the lamina propria is very loose, allowing it to be very cell rich. The cell population of the lamina propria is variable and can include, for example, fibroblasts, lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, eosinophilic leukocytes, and mast cells. It provides support and nutrition to the epithelium, as well as the means to bind to the underlying tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell bodies in which nuclei?
Your Answer: Paraventricular
Correct Answer: Arcuate
Explanation:Arcuate nucleus dopaminergic neurons consist of a single group of neurons that project to the median eminence where they release dopamine into the hypophyseal portal circulation to inhibit pituitary prolactin secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?
Your Answer: Tissue plasminogen activator
Correct Answer: Thrombin
Explanation:Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The following products of the vascular endothelium produce vasodilation except:
Your Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor
Correct Answer: Endothelin
Explanation:Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) is a signal protein produced by cells that stimulates vasculogenesis and angiogenesis. It is part of the system that restores the oxygen supply to tissues when blood circulation is inadequate. VEGF’s normal function is to create new blood vessels during embryonic development, new blood vessels after injury, muscle following exercise, and new vessels (collateral circulation) to bypass blocked vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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Calcium induced calcium release occurs in the sarcoplasmic reticulum by activation of which receptors
Your Answer: Ryanodine receptors
Explanation:Calcium-induced calcium release (CICR) describes a biological process whereby calcium is able to activate calcium release from intracellular Ca2+ stores (e.g., endoplasmic reticulum or sarcoplasmic reticulum). CICR occurs when the resulting Ca2+ influx activates ryanodine receptors on the SR membrane, which causes more Ca2+ to be released into the cytosol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. What should her immediate management consist of?
Your Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine
Explanation:Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion.The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Empirical treatment with ciprofloxacin for 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist
Explanation:Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate. The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).Other treatment modalities include:• Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.• 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)• PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.• Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?
Your Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.Uses- Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage- Acromegaly- Carcinoid syndrome- Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery- VIPomas- Refractory diarrhoeaAdverse effectsGallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)Other options:- Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.- Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.- Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis- Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which statement is correct regarding mRNA?
Your Answer: mRNAs are mainly found in the nucleus and cytoplasm of a cell.
Explanation:mRNA is transcribed from DNA and is carried to the cytosol to be translated. Hence it is mainly found in the cytosol and the nucleus of a cell. It is single stranded and contains the base uracil instead of thymine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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One function of the liver is synthesis and storage of protein. Which of the following will result in hypoalbuminemia?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Both trauma and sepsis cause an acute inflammatory response causing plasma leakage of albumin. Nephropathy causes leakage of albumin from glomeruli and excretion of albumin in urine known as albuminuria. A hypercatabolic state is characterized by increased circulating catabolic hormones and increase break down of proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about her short-term memory problems for the past 10 months. He has to remind her to take her medications and she has had two incidents of falling over in the last 10 months. Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of above condition?
Your Answer: Progressive loss of function
Explanation:The clinical presentation is dementia. To differentiate Alzheimer disease and vascular dementia, the progressive loss of function is important. Progressive loss of function is usually associated with vascular dementia and rest of the responses are associated with Alzheimer disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer: Thiazide
Correct Answer: Acetazolamide
Explanation:Acetazolamide is in the diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor families of medication. It works by decreasing the amount of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate in the body and can thus cause metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Factors influencing cardiac output include which of the following?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:There is a correlation between resting CO and body surface area. The output per min per square meter of body surface (the cardiac index) averages 3.2l.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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Free radicals are best defined by which of the following statements.
Your Answer: Atoms or molecules with unpaired electrons
Explanation:Free radicals form when one of weak bond between electrons is broken and an uneven number of electrons remain. This means the electron is unpaired, making it chemically reactive and attempt to steal an electron from a neighbouring molecule to stabilize itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which receptor type is associated with the inhibition of pancreatic endocrine secretion?
Your Answer: M2
Correct Answer: Α2
Explanation:The activation of alpha 2-adrenergic receptors in pancreatic beta-cells works by inhibiting the secretion of insulin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?
Your Answer: Methaemoglobin, present in the circulation in small quantities, can resemble cyanosis.
Correct Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.
Explanation:Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following is responsible for transporting both glucose and fructose into the interstitium?
Your Answer: GLUT 2
Explanation:Absorption of glucose involves transport from the intestinal lumen, across the epithelium and into blood. The transporter that carries glucose and galactose into the enterocyte is the sodium-dependent hexose transporter, known as SGLT1. As the name indicates, this molecule transports both glucose and sodium ions into the cell. Once absorbed into the enterocyte, glucose must be exported from the cell into blood. Sodium is rapidly shuttled out in exchange for potassium by Na+/K+ ATPase pumps on the basolateral membrane, and that process maintains the electrochemical gradient across the epithelium. Glucose, galactose and fructose are transported out of the enterocyte into the interstitium and in turn into the blood through another hexose transporter (called GLUT-2) in the basolateral membrane. These monosaccharides then diffuse down a concentration gradient into capillary blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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Where would one find pericytes around endothelial cells?
Your Answer: Post-capillary venules
Explanation:Pericytes release a wide variety of vasoactive agents which regulate the flow through the junction between endothelial cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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Concerning surface anatomy, where is the base of the heart
Your Answer: 2nd left costal to 3rd right costal cartilage
Explanation:The base of the heart, also known as the superior border of the heart corresponds to a line connecting the inferior border of the 2nd left costal cartilage to the superior border of the 3rd right costal cartilage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE?
Your Answer: These are rare disorders.
Correct Answer: Heterozygous females tend to have the disease more severely than affected males.
Explanation:Women who have the affected X chromosome will be affected, but the severity will be less than that in males as they have a normal X chromosome to counter the effect of the mutated X chromosome. Affected males will pass on the defect to their daughters 100% of the time but not to their sons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 22 year old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis. Complete blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:Hb: 12.4 g/dl Plt: 137 WBC: 7.5*109/l PT: 14 secs APTT: 46 secs Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The combination of APTT and low platelets with recurrent DVTs make antiphospholipid syndrome the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the:
Your Answer: Medulla
Explanation:The corticospinal tract is a descending motor path way that begins in the cerebral cortex and decussates in the pyramids of the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Where is Basic Electrical rhythm initiated
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Interstitial cells of cajal
Explanation:The interstitial cells of Cajal are specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. These cells are connected to the smooth muscle via gap junctions and the myenteric plexus. The cell membranes of the pacemaker cells undergo a rhythmic depolarization and repolarization from -65mV to -45mV. This rhythm of depolarization-repolarization of the cell membrane creates a slow wave known as a basic electrical rhythm (BER), and it is transmitted to the smooth muscle cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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Major supplies of glycogen are found in ….
Your Answer: Liver and skeletal muscle
Explanation:The two major sites of glycogen storage are the liver and skeletal muscle. The concentration of glycogen is higher in the liver than in muscle however more glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle due to its greater mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?
Your Answer: N-acetyl transferases
Correct Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation:Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In blistering dermatological disorders e.g.. Pemphigus, which junctions are attacked by autoantibodies?
Your Answer: Gap junctions
Correct Answer: Desmosomes
Explanation:Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against both desmoglein 1 and desmoglein 3 present in desmosomes. Loss of desmosomes results in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in the epidermis, and a disruption of the barrier function served by intact skin. The process is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Where is retinol mainly stored?
Your Answer: Eyes
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:Vitamin A is a group of unsaturated nutritional organic compounds that includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids (most notably beta-carotene). The liver stores a multitude of substances, including glucose (in the form of glycogen), vitamin A (1–2 years’ supply), vitamin D (1–4 months’ supply), vitamin B12 (3–5 years’ supply), vitamin K, iron, and copper.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An example of cholinergic autonomic neurons are:
Your Answer: Sympathetic postganglionic neurons that cause mydriasis.
Correct Answer: Sympathetic postganglionic neurons that innervate sweat glands.
Explanation:All preganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system secrete acetylcholine. The postganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system in all neurons is acetylcholine. Postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system mainly secrete Noradrenalin and Adrenalin but at sweat glands and erector pili muscles the postganglionic neurotransmitter is acetylcholine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA sequence and the stem cells is known as:
Your Answer: Recombination
Correct Answer: Insertion
Explanation:Chimerisation is also known as the formation of recombinant DNA. When a foreign DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid or other DNA sequence, this process is known as insertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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